Cisco 350-501 Dumps (Updated) Sharps For Passing The Exam

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Cisco 350-501 Dumps Updated

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Let’s start with the free 350-501 SPCOR exam question sharing (2024)

Come from: Pass4itSure
Question: 350-501 SPCOR exam questions Q1-Q13 were updated last time, and this time we will continue to update 15 channels
Certifications: CCNP Service Provider, CCIE Service Provider

Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-501 SPCOR exam question 1

A network engineer must configure XR-PE1 for uninterruptible failover from the active RP to the standby RP. Neither peer device C-GW1 nor the core network of ASN 64512 supports graceful restart extensions. Which configuration must the engineer apply to XR-PE1 to complete the task?

A. nsr process-failures switchover router ospf 100 nsf cisco

B. router bgp 64512 nsrrouter ospf 100 nsrmpls ldp nsr

C. nsr process-failures switchover

router bgp 64512 nsr

router ospf 100 nsr

mpls ldp nsr

D. nsr process-failures switchover router ospf 100 nsf left

Correct Answer: C

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-501 SPCOR exam question 2

An engineer is preparing to implement a link aggregation configuration. Which statement about this configuration is true?

A. The switch port negotiates an EtherChannel if it receives LACP packets from a connected peer running passive mode.

B. The switch port actively sends packets to negotiate an EtherChannel using PAgP.

C. The switch port passively negotiates an EtherChannel if it receives PAgP packets from a connected peer.

D. The switch port accepts LACP and PAgP packets from a connected peer and negotiates an EtherChannel using the common EtherChannel mode.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/metro/me3600x_3800x/trash/swethchl.html

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-501 SPCOR exam question 3

An engineer configured R6 as the headend LSR of an RSVP-TE LSP to router XR2, with the dynamic path signaled as R6-R2-R5-XR2. and set the OSPF cost of all links to 1. MPLS auto tunnel backup Is enabled on all routers to protect the LSP.

Which two NNHOP backup tunnels should the engineer use to complete the implementation? (Choose two.)

A. The R6 backup tunnel path R6-R1-R4-R5.

B. The R2 backup tunnel path R2-R5 across the alternate link.

C. The R2 backup tunnel path R2-R1-R4-XR1-XR2.

D. The R6 backup tunnel path R6-R2-R5

E. The R6 backup tunnel path R6-R1-R2.

Correct Answer: AC

Question 4:

A network engineer is configuring RIP as the routing protocol between multiple PEs and CEs. The engineer must avoid advertising the same routes back to their sources. Which action should be performed on the routers to accomplish this task?

A. Define the site of origin on each interface.

B. Configure a different route distinguisher for each prefix.

C. Define VRFs on each device to separate the traffic.

D. Enable bidirectional forwarding detection on each device.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

A. Define the site of origin (SoO) on each interface.

Site of Origin (SoO) is an attribute used in BGP, not RIP, to prevent routing loops in BGP/MPLS IP VPNs. It’s used to mark routes that have been received from a particular site to prevent those routes from being advertised back into the site, avoiding routing loops.

Relevance: While SoO is relevant in the context of preventing routing loops, its application is more aligned with BGP/MPLS scenarios and not directly applicable to RIP routing between PEs and CEs in the manner the question suggests.
B. Configure a different route distinguisher for each prefix.

Route Distinguishers (RDs) are used in MPLS VPN technology to distinguish routes in different virtual routing and forwarding (VRF) instances. RDs make it possible for the same IP address space to be used in different VRFs without conflict.
Relevance: RDs are specific to MPLS VPN configurations and are not used in the context of RIP routing. They’re crucial for distinguishing between identical routes in different VPNs but do not directly impact the prevention of route advertisements back to their source in a traditional RIP environment.
C. Define VRFs on each device to separate the traffic.

Virtual Routing and Forwarding (VRF) is a technology that allows multiple instances of a routing table to coexist within the same router simultaneously. By using VRFs, network engineers can isolate and segregate traffic for different customers or different segments of their network.

Relevance: Defining VRFs would enable the segregation of traffic from different CEs, ensuring that routes learned from one CE are kept separate and are not advertised back to that CE or another CE within the same VPN. This approach can effectively prevent the advertisement of routes back to their sources in an environment where PEs and CEs are involved.
D. Enable bidirectional forwarding detection (BFD) on each device.

Bidirectional Forwarding Detection (BFD) is a protocol designed to quickly detect failures in the path between two forwarding engines, including interfaces, routers, and intermediate links.

Relevance: While BFD is valuable for detecting link failures rapidly, it does not directly contribute to the prevention of advertising the same routes back to their sources.
Correct Action to Accomplish the Task
Given the objective of avoiding advertising the same routes back to their sources in a network utilizing RIP between PEs and CEs, the most appropriate action would be:

C. Define VRFs on each device to separate the traffic.

This option directly addresses the goal by ensuring that routes are not advertised back to their source, leveraging the isolation provided by VRFs to maintain separate routing information for each CE in a multi-tenant environment or within distinct segments of a network. This separation is crucial in preventing routing loops and ensuring efficient routing decisions in a network setup involving RIP among multiple PEs and CEs.

Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the NAT64 descriptions from the left onto the correct NAT64 types on the right.

Select and Place:

350-501 SPCOR exam question 5

Correct Answer:

350-501 SPCOR exam question 5-2

Stateful (It has 1: N translation, It uses address overloading, It conservers IPv4 addresses)

Stateless (It is limited on the number of endpoints, It mandates IPv4-translatable IPv6 address allocation)

Question 6:

What is a feature of model-driven telemetry?

A. It occasionally streams to multiple servers in the network.

B. It is less secure because it uses community strings.

C. It uses the pull model to send requested data to a client when polled.

D. It uses the push model to stream data to desired destinations.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Model-driven telemetry (MDT) is a modern approach to network monitoring and management that significantly enhances the capabilities and efficiency of network operations. Here’s a breakdown of the options provided, leading to why D is the correct answer:

A. It occasionally streams to multiple servers in the network. This statement is somewhat misleading. Model-driven telemetry can continuously stream data to multiple servers or endpoints, not just occasionally. The key feature of MDT is its flexibility in streaming data as configured, but the term “occasionally” doesn’t accurately describe its capabilities.

B. It is less secure because it uses community strings. This statement is incorrect. Model-driven telemetry typically utilizes more secure, modern protocols like gRPC (gRPC Remote Procedure Calls) or HTTP/2 for data transmission, which rely on authentication methods far more secure than SNMP community strings. MDT’s design focuses on enhanced security and efficient data transport.

C. It uses the pull model to send requested data to a client when polled. This option describes the traditional SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) method of network monitoring, where a management station polls devices to retrieve data. MDT, on the other hand, fundamentally shifts away from this model.

D. It uses the push model to stream data to desired destinations. This is the defining feature of model-driven telemetry. Unlike traditional network monitoring solutions that rely on polling (pulling data from devices at intervals), MDT allows network devices to push data to monitoring and analytics tools in real time or at specified intervals. This push model enables more efficient network utilization, reduces latency in data gathering, and allows for near real-time monitoring and analysis of the network state.

Why D is Correct
Model-driven telemetry’s push model is a significant shift from traditional polling-based monitoring systems. By pushing data from the network devices to the monitoring systems, MDT enables a more scalable, real-time, and efficient way of gathering and analyzing telemetry data. This approach not only reduces the overhead on network devices but also provides a more granular view of the network’s health and performance, facilitating quicker and more informed decision-making.

Question 7:

Which module refers to the network automation using Ansible?

A. the iosxr_system module to collect facts from remote devices

B. the iosxr_user module to manage banners for users in the local database

C. the losxr_logging module to run debugging for seventy levels 2 to 5

D. the iosxr_command module to issue run commands on remote devices

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Ansible is a popular automation tool used for configuration management, application deployment, task automation, and IT orchestration. It can automate network devices just like servers. Ansible uses modules to interact with various devices, systems, and services. Each module is designed to handle specific tasks on different platforms or devices. Regarding network automation, especially with Cisco IOS XR devices, several modules are designed for different functions:

A. the iosxr_system module to collect facts from remote devices: While there are modules to collect facts from remote devices in Ansible (like the ios_facts module for Cisco IOS devices), the iosxr_system module is not specifically described as a fact-collecting module in the provided options, nor is it accurately named for such a purpose in the context of Ansible’s naming conventions.

B. the iosxr_user module to manage banners for users in the local database: The iosxr_user module is indeed used in Ansible to manage user accounts on Cisco IOS XR devices. However, it’s primarily for user configuration rather than managing banners, which are typically handled by a different module or parameter set focused on system or login messages.

C. the losxr_logging module to run debugging for seventy levels 2 to 5: This option seems to contain a typographical error (losxr_logging instead of a correct module naming convention) and inaccurately describes a module’s purpose. In Ansible, logging modules are used to configure logging settings, not to run debugging sessions. Additionally, the description does not match a standard module’s functionality or naming convention.

D. the iosxr_command module to issue run commands on remote devices: This is the correct answer. The iosxr_command module in Ansible is used to send commands to Cisco IOS XR devices. This module allows network administrators to issue operational commands on remote devices for various purposes, such as gathering information, checking status, or applying configurations that do not directly translate into standard Ansible modules. This functionality is a key component of network automation, enabling the execution of commands across multiple devices in a consistent and automated manner.

Conclusion
In the context of network automation using Ansible, especially with Cisco IOS XR devices, D. the iosxr_command module is the correct module that refers to the capability to issue and run commands on remote devices. This functionality is essential for automating tasks that involve executing operational or configuration commands directly on network devices.

https://docs.ansible.com/ansible/latest/collections/cisco/iosxr/iosxr_command_module.html #ansible-collections-cisco-iosxr-iosxr-command-module

Question 8:

A network engineer is deploying VPLS configuration between multiple PE routers so that customer\’s remote offices have end-to-end LAN connectivity. Which additional configuration should the engineer perform on the PE routers to enable the virtual switch instance?

A. I2 vfl cisco test manual vpn id 100 neighbor 192.168.2.2 encapsulation mpls neighbor 192.168.3.3 encapsulation mpls

B. interface GigEthernet 1/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk encap dot1q switchport trunk allow vlan 2-10

C. interface Vlan 5 xconnect vfl ciscotest

D. interface Vlan 100 xconnect vfi ciscotest ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255

Correct Answer: A

Provisioning a Virtual Private LAN Services (VPLS) link involves provisioning the associated attachment circuit and a virtual forwarding instance (VFI) on a provider edge (PE) device. https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l2_vpns/configuration/xe-3s/mp-l2-vpns-xe-3s-book/mp-vpls.html

Question 9:

In an EVPN operation, how does the PE determine and advertise Ethernet segment reachability?

A. The PE discovers and shares routing information for the B-MAC addresses associated with local Ethernet segments.

B. The PE discovers remote ESIs and determines their redundancy mode.

C. The PE discovers the remote PEs in the EVI and builds a flood list linked with the EVI.

D. The PE discovers other PEs in the same Ethernet segment and elects a DF.

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

In an Ethernet VPN (EVPN) operation, the Provider Edge (PE) routers play a critical role in determining and advertising Ethernet segment (ES) reachability information. This is crucial for ensuring that Ethernet frames can be delivered across the network to the correct destinations, especially in multi-homed scenarios where redundancy and load balancing are important. Let’s analyze the provided options:

A. The PE discovers and shares routing information for the B-MAC addresses associated with local Ethernet segments.

While it’s true that PEs in an EVPN environment share routing information, including MAC addresses (B-MAC for bridge MAC in the case of EVPN), this option doesn’t directly address how Ethernet segment reachability is established or advertised, especially in the context of Ethernet segments and not just individual MAC addresses.

B. The PE discovers remote ESIs and determines their redundancy mode.

An Ethernet Segment Identifier (ESI) is a unique identifier that enables the network to distinguish between different Ethernet segments. While discovering ESIs is an important part of EVPN operation, and knowing their redundancy mode is important for determining how traffic should be handled, this option focuses more on the characteristics of the ES rather than the process of determining and advertising ES reachability itself.

C. The PE discovers the remote PEs in the EVI and builds a flood list linked with the EVI.

Ethernet VPN Instance (EVI) is a concept in EVPN that represents a unique VPN. While building a flood list is part of ensuring efficient traffic delivery within an EVI, this doesn’t specifically describe the process of discovering and advertising Ethernet segment reachability, which is more directly associated with how Ethernet segments are connected and reachable across the network.

D. The PE discovers other PEs in the same Ethernet segment and elects a Designated Forwarder (DF).

This option most accurately describes a critical function in EVPN operations related to Ethernet segment reachability. In multi-homed EVPN scenarios, where an Ethernet segment is connected to multiple PEs for redundancy, it’s essential to elect a Designated Forwarder (DF) among those PEs for each Ethernet segment. The DF is responsible for forwarding broadcast, unknown unicast, and multicast (BUM) traffic to and from the Ethernet segment. This process ensures that there’s no duplication of BUM traffic in the network and that the Ethernet segment’s reachability is efficiently managed. The election of a DF and the advertisement of this status to other PEs ensure that the network knows which PE to use for forwarding traffic to and from the multi-homed Ethernet segment, effectively advertising its reachability.

Conclusion:

The correct answer is D. The PE discovers other PEs in the same Ethernet segment and elects a DF. This process is fundamental to the operation of EVPN, especially in scenarios involving multi-homed Ethernet segments, as it ensures efficient and correct advertisement of Ethernet segment reachability across the network.

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-501 SPCOR exam question 10

The application server in the data center hosts voice, video, and data applications over the internet. The data applications run more slowly than the voice and video applications. To ensure that all applications run smoothly, the service provider decided to implement a QoS policy on router PER 2 to apply traffic shaping. Which two actions must an engineer take to implement the task? (Choose two.)

A. Configure the scheduling function to handle delayed packets.

B. Enable packet remarking for priority traffic.

C. Configure a queue to buffer excess traffic.

D. Set the token value for secondary traffic.

E. Set a threshold to discard excess traffic.

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit. Tier 1 ISP A purchased several Tier 2 ISPs to increase their customer base and provide more regional coverage. ISP A plans to implement MPLS services in the access layer, with scalability up to 100,000 devices in one packet network and service recovery up to 50 ms. The network architect decided to use different independent IGP and LDP domains and interconnect LSPs that are based on RFC 3107. Which two actions must the network engineer perform to meet the requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Implement BGP inline RR functionality with next-hop-self capabilities on routers R2 and R3.

B. Implement the IS-IS routing protocol on the access domain.

C. Implement BGP connectivity between routers R1 and R4 with VPNv4 address family enabled.

D. Configure three OSPF areas, with Area 0 in the core domain, and Areas 2 and 3 in the aggregation domain.

E. Implement BGP PIC core functionality on routers R2 and R3.

Correct Answer: AE

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-501 SPCOR exam question 12

A network engineer is implementing QoS services. Which two statements about the QoS-group keyword on Cisco IOS XR are true? (Choose two.)

A. It marks packets for end-to-end QoS policy enforcement across the network.

B. QoS group marking occurs on the ingress.

C. The QoS group numbering corresponds to the priority level.

D. QoS group can be used in fabric QoS policy as match criteria.

E. It cannot be used with a priority traffic class.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 13:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the technologies from the left onto the correct definitions on the right.

Select and Place:

350-501 SPCOR exam question 13

Correct Answer:

350-501 SPCOR exam question 13-2

Question 14:

When configuring traffic engineering tunnels in the Cisco MPLS core network, you see the traffic is not tacking the expected path in the core. Which command do you use to quickly check the path of a TE tunnel?

A. traceroute

B. show mpls traffic-engineering tunnels

C. Ping

D. traceroute mpls ipv4

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

The D. traceroute mpls ipv4 command is specifically tailored for tracing the path of MPLS packets through the network. This command allows network engineers to see how MPLS-labeled packets are being routed, including the labels used at each hop. This is crucial for troubleshooting MPLS TE tunnels because it provides visibility into the actual path MPLS-TE labeled packets are taking through the network, which can be different from the expected path due to various reasons such as misconfiguration, link failures, or incorrect routing policies.

This command is more specific and direct for troubleshooting MPLS paths than the previously discussed B. show mpls traffic-engineering tunnels, which provides a broad overview of the TE tunnel configurations but doesn’t trace the packet flow through the network. In the context of checking the actual path taken by the traffic within TE tunnels, D. traceroute mpls ipv4 offers a more granular and practical insight into the packet-level routing decisions within the MPLS network.

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit

350-501 SPCOR exam question 15

Which effect of this configuration is true?

A. R1 can support a peer that is configured for LDP SSO/NSF as the peer recovers from an outage.

B. can support a graceful restart operation on the peer, even if a graceful restart is disabled on the peer.

C. R1 can failover to any peer.

D. R1 can failover only to a peer that is configured for LDF SSO/NSF.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/general/Test/kwoodwar/fsgr29s.html

More Cisco Exam Questions…

With practice questions, is that enough? You need more study resources to pass the Cisco 350-501 SPCOR exam.

Keep learning.

A collection of the latest Cisco SPCOR exam study resources:

PDF format：

350-501 SPCOR Exam: Implementing and Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies

Document format：

Video format：

  1. CCIE Service Provider Exam Prep
  2. CCIE Service Provider Training Videos

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Here, you can also get it on the Pass4itSure website.

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There are few resources, you can find the latest 350 501 resources here (the latest in 2024), and the exam is well worth it for those who need to develop in this area.

Write at the end:

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I wish you all a smooth exam and a happy day.

New 350-901 Dumps Practice Questions Free Online Sharing

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new 350-901 dumps

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First, the new 350-901 dumps come with a wave of free 350-901 exam practice questions

From Pass4itSure, there are 414+ questions in total, and that’s just the other questions 1-15, more Cisco DevNet exam questions…

Question 1:

The application sometimes stores configuration as constants in the code, which is a violation of strict separation of configuration from code. Where should application configuration be stored?

A. environment variables

B. YAML files

C. Python libraries

D. Dockerfiles

E. INI files

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing to configure a router that runs Cisco IOS XE by using RESTCONF. The API call is made to the management URL of the IOS XE device and on a registered port number. Errors that are caught during HTTP operation are registered. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-901 exam practice questions 2

Correct Answer:

350-901 exam practice questions 2-2

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-901 exam practice questions 3

Which key-value pair from the ios_ntp Ansible module creates an NTP server peer?

A. state: present

B. state: True

C. config: present

D. config: True

Correct Answer: A

Explanation: ios_ntp: Manages core NTP configuration state: Manage the state of the resource Choices: present | absent Example: # Set new NTP server and source interface-ios_ntp: server: 10.0.255.10 source_int: Loopback0 logging: false state: present

https://docs.ansible.com/ansible/latest/modules/ios_ntp_module.html

Question 4:

The code fetches the latest order from the purchases table for a specific user. An engineer needs to pass query parameters to the execute function to prevent an SQL injection attack. Which code snippet must be placed in the blank in the code to meet this requirement?

350-901 exam practice questions 4

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

Which configuration step must be performed on a Cisco IOS XE device to present collected data in Cisco DNA Center?

A. Create an SNMPv3 user account.

B. Apply a telemetry profile.

C. Synchronize the device and the data collector.

D. Enable Cisco NetFlow collection.

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-901 exam practice questions 6

An application has been created to serve a whole enterprise. Based on use and department requirements, changes are requested every quarter. When evaluating the application design, which two actions improve code maintainability?

A. Replace the requests library with the HTTP client library in the code.

B. Place all import statements on a single line at the top of the code.

C. Cache responses to API calls for later reuse on other code.

D. Parameterize similar code blocks inside functions and reuse them within the code.

E. Add comments in appropriate locations to aid in understanding the code.

Correct Answer: DE

Question 7:

Which kind of API that is used with Cisco DNA Center provisions SSIDs, QoS policies, and update software versions on switches?

A. Event

B. Multivendor

C. Integration

D. Intent

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-901 exam practice questions 8

A developer created the code, but it failed to execute. Which code snippet helps to identify the issue?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: A

>>> read_file = open(“me.txt”, “r”) Traceback (most recent call last): File “”, line 1, in FileNotFoundError: [Errno 2] No such file or directory: \’me.txt\’ >>>

Question 9:

What is a characteristic of a monolithic architecture?

A. It is an application with multiple independent parts.

B. New capabilities are deployed by restarting a component of the application.

C. A service failure can bring down the whole application.

D. The components are platform-agnostic.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation: A monolithic app can be platform-agnostic but it\’s not mandatory. But if the app is monolithic, a service failure (such as storage or network) will bring down the whole app/service. This is unlike the distributed application architecture where the failure of one microcomponent can be detected and fixed dynamically.

Question 10:

An automated solution is needed to configure VMs in numerous cloud provider environments to connect the environments to an SDWAN. The SDWAN edge VM is provided as an image in each of the relevant clouds and can be given an identity and all required configurations via cloud-init without needing to log into the VM once online.

Which configuration management and/or automation tooling is needed for this solution?

A. Ansible

B. Ansible and Terraform

C. NSO

D. Terraform

E. Ansible and NSO

Correct Answer: D

Question 11:

DRAG DROP

350-901 exam practice questions 11

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the code snippets from the left onto the item numbers on the right that match the missing sections in the exhibit to complete the script to implement control flow.

Select and Place:

350-901 exam practice questions 11-2

Correct Answer:

350-901 exam practice questions 11-2

Question 12:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the steps from the left into the order on the right to ensure that an application requiring communication to the external network is hosted on a Cisco Catalyst 9000 switch.

Select and Place:

350-901 exam practice questions 12

Correct Answer:

350-901 exam practice questions 12-2

Question 13:
350-901 exam practice questions 13

Refer to my exhibit The Python code manages a Cisco CSR 1000V router Which code snippet must be placed in the blank m the code to update the current configuration of the targeted resource?

350-901 exam practice questions 13-2

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code from the bottom of the code snippet to the blanks in the code to construct a Puppet manifest that configures a VRF instance on a Cisco IOS XR device. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

350-901 exam practice questions 14

Correct Answer:

350-901 exam practice questions 14-2

Question 15:

Given an application that implements a basic search function as well as a video upload function, which two load-balancing approaches optimize the application\’s user experience? (Choose two.)

A. Video upload requests should be routed to the endpoint using an intermediate hop.

B. Video upload requests should be routed to the endpoint with the highest data throughput.

C. Video upload requests should be routed to the endpoint with the lowest round-trip latency.

D. Search requests should be routed to the endpoint with the lowest round-trip latency.

E. Search requests should be routed to the endpoint with the highest data throughput.

Correct Answer: BD

More Cisco exam questions. . .

Is the 350-901 DEVICOR exam?

The Cisco 350-901 exam, also known as the 350-901 DEVCOR Developing Applications Using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs exam, requires you to complete 90-110 questions in 120 minutes and achieve a score of 750-850 to earn a passing score out of 1000. There are three certifications associated with the exam:
Cisco Certified DevNet Professional
Cisco Certified DevNet Expert
Cisco Certified DevNet Specialist – Core

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Practice CCNP Enterprise 300-430 exam questions online

FromNumber of exam questionsAssociated certifications
Pass4itsure220CCNP Enterprise
Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Enterprise 300-430 exam questions 1

A wireless engineer has integrated the wireless network with a RADIUS server. Although the configuration on the RADIUS is correct, users are reporting that they are unable to connect. During troubleshooting, the engineer notices that the authentication requests are being dropped. Which action will resolve the issue?

A. Provide a valid client username that has been configured on the RADIUS server.

B. Authenticate the client using the same EAP type that has been set up on the RADIUS server.

C. Allow connectivity from the wireless controller to the IP of the RADIUS server.

D. Configure the shared-secret keys on the controller and the RADIUS server.

Correct Answer: B

https://community.cisco.com/t5/network-access-control/cisco-acs-11036-the-message-authenticator-radius-attribute-is/td-p/2054255

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Enterprise 300-430 exam questions 2

An engineer needs to manage non-802.11 interference. What is observed in the output on PI?

A. Several light interferers are collectively impacting connectivity at this site.

B. The three Individual clusters have shown Indicated poor AP placement.

C. At least one strong interferer is impacting connectivity at this site.

D. RF at this site is unable to provide adequate wireless performance.

Correct Answer: B

Question 3:

A multitenant building contains known wireless networks in most of the suites. Rogues must be classified in the WLC. How are the competing wireless APs classified?

A. ad-hoc

B. friendly

C. malicious

D. unclassified

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

CCNP Enterprise 300-430 exam questions 4

An engineer must connect a forklift via a WGB to a wireless network and must authenticate the WGB certificate against the RADIUS server. Which three steps are required for this configuration? (Choose three.)

A. Configure the certificate, WLAN, and radio interface on WGB.

B. Configure the certificate on the WLC.

C. Configure WLAN to authenticate using ISE.

D. Configure the access point with the root certificate from ISE.

E. Configure WGB as a network device in ISE.

F. Configure a policy on ISE to allow devices to connect that validate the certificate.

Correct Answer: ACF

A. Configure the certificate, WLAN, and radio interface on WGB. –> That\’s true

B. Configure the certificate on the WLC. –> Nope, the WLC is the authenticator, it is neither authenticated nor needs to authenticate anything

C. Configure WLAN to authenticate using ISE. –> True, on the controller the SSID to which the WGB will connect must be configured, and broadcasted by the LAP

D. Configure the access point with the root certificate from ISE. –> If they are talking about the WGB access point, then that\’s true, the root certificate that signed the ISE certificate needs to be installed in the WGB AP

E. Configure WGB as a network device in ISE. –> That\’s surely wrong. The WGB is not the authenticator in the dot1x process. It is the client. The controller is the authenticator.

F. Configure a policy on ISE to allow devices to connect that validate the certificate. –> As I understand it, in some ways, that\’s true. We need to create an authentication/authorization policy on ISE so that the WGB AP will be authenticated by ISE based on its certificate.

Question 5:

A wireless engineer must configure access control on a WLC using a TACAS+ server for a company that is implementing centralized authentication on network devices. Which role must be configured under the shell profile on the TACAS+ server for a user with read-only permissions?

A. MANAGEMENT

B. MONITOR

C. ADMIN

D. READ

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

An engineer has many different WLANs on a WLC but does not want to broadcast them to every AP in the building. Which group must be configured on the WLC to allow different WLANs on the different APs without creating new interfaces?

A. ACL

B. interface group

C. mobility group

D. AP group

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

A wireless administrator must assess the different client types connected to Cisco Catalyst 9800 Series Wireless Controller without using any external servers. Which configuration must be added to the controller to achieve this assessment?

A. native profile

B. MAC classification

C. local profile

D. device classification

Correct Answer: D

Source: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/catalyst-9800-series-wireless-controllers/215661-in-depth-look-into-client-profiling-on-9.html and logging into my own 9800.

Question 8:

Which component must be integrated with Cisco DNA Center to display the location of a client that is experiencing connectivity issues?

A. Cisco Hyperlocation Module

B. Wireless Intrusion Prevention System

C. Cisco Connected Mobile Experiences

D. Cisco Mobility Services Engine

Correct Answer: A

Question 9:

An engineer is ensuring that, on the IEEE 802.1X wireless network, clients authenticate using a central repository and local credentials on the Cisco WLC. Which two configuration elements must be completed on the WLAN? (Choose two.)

A. TACACS+

B. MAC authentication

C. local EAP enabled

D. web authentication

E. LDAP server

Correct Answer: CE

Question 10:

CMX Facebook Wi-Fi allows access to the network before authentication. Which two elements are available? (Choose two.)

A. Allow HTTP traffic only before authentication and block all the traffic.

B. Allow all the traffic before authentication and intercept HTTPS only.

C. Allow HTTPs traffic only before authentication and block all other traffic.

D. Allow all the traffic before authentication and intercept HTTP only.

E. Allow SNMP traffic only before authentication and block all the traffic.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/mse/8- 0/CMX_Connect_Engage_Visitor_Connect/Guide/Cisco_CMX_Connect_Engage_Config_Guide_VC/CMX_Facebook_Wi-Fi.html

Question 11:

An engineer must enable LSS for the Apple TV mDNS service only when ORIGIN is set to Wired. Which action meets this requirement?

A. Set ORIGIN to Wired. Enable LSS by using the config mdns service Iss Apple TV command.

B. Set ORIGIN to either Wireless or All. Enable LSS by using the config mdns service Iss enable the Apple TV command

C. Set ORIGIN to Wired. Enable LSS by using the config mdns service Iss All command

D. Set ORIGIN to either Wireless or All. Enable LSS by using the config mdns service Iss All command.

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

What two actions must be taken by an engineer configuring wireless Identity-Based Networking for a WLAN to enable VLAN tagging? (Choose two.)

A. enable AAA override on the WLAN

B. create and apply the appropriate ACL to the WLAN

C. update the RADIUS server attributes for tunnel type 64, medium type 65, and tunnel private group type 81

D. configure RADIUS server with WLAN subnet and VLAN ID E. Enable VLAN Select on the wireless LAN controller and the WLAN

Correct Answer: AC

Question 13:

A company wants to switch to BYOD to reduce IT support costs for the company. Which option is an impact of BYOD should be considered?

A. increased VPN connections

B. restricted device enforcement

C. increased phishing attacks

D. decreased support calls

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

A company is deploying wireless PCs on forklifts within its new 10,000-square-foot(3048- square-meter) facility.

The clients are configured for PEAP-MS-CHAPv2 with WPA TKIP. Users report that applications frequently drop when the clients roam between access points on the floor. A professional site survey was completed.

Which configuration change is recommended to improve the speed of client roaming?

A. EAP-FAST

B. EAP-TLS

C. WPAAES

D. WPA2AES

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

What is configured to use more than one port on the OEAP to extend the wired network\’s?

A. AAA override

B. client load balancing

C. remote LAN ACL

D. remote LAN

Correct Answer: D

…

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Win The CCNP 350-401 Exam With The Latest 350-401 ENCOR Dumps

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Latest 350-401 exam questions

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Don’t worry, we brought you free 350-401 exam questions that you can try.

Take the test: Latest 350-401 ENCOR dumps exam questions online

Question 1:

Which Quality of Service (QoS) mechanism allows the network administrator to control the maximum rate of traffic received or sent on a given interface?

A. Policing

B. Marking

C. Queueing

D. Classification

Correct Answer: A

Traffic Policing

In general, traffic policing allows you to control the maximum rate of traffic sent or received on an interface and to partition a network into multiple priority levels or classes of service (CoS).

Question 2:

What are the two benefits of YANG? (Choose two)

A. it collects statistical constraint analysis information

B. In enforces the use of specific encoding format for NETCONF

C. in enforces configuration semantics

D. it enables multiple leaf statements to exist within a leaf-list

E. it enforces configuration constraints

Correct Answer: BE

Question 3:

An engineer is concerned with the deployment of a new application that is sensitive to inter-packet delay variance. Which command configures the router to be the destination of jitter measurements?

A. Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

B. Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-connect 172.29.139.134 5000

C. Router(config)# ip sla responder udp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

D. Router(config)# ip sla responder tcp-echo 172.29.139.134 5000

Correct Answer: C

Cisco IOS IP SLA Responder is a Cisco IOS Software component whose functionality is to respond to Cisco IOS IP SLA request packets. The IP SLA source sends control packets before the operation starts to establish a connection to the

responder. Once the control packet is acknowledged, test packets are sent to the responder. The responder inserts a time stamp when it receives a packet and factors out the destination processing time and adds time stamps to the sent

packets. This feature allows the calculation of unidirectional packet loss, latency, and jitter measurements with the kind of accuracy that is not possible with ping or other dedicated probe testing.

Reference:

UDP Jitter measures the delay, delay variation (jitter), corruption, misordering and packet loss by generating periodic UDP traffic. This operation always requires IP SLA responder. The command to enable UDP Jitter Operation is “ip sla

responder udp-echo {destination-ip-address} [destination-port]

Question 4:

What is one primary REST security design principle?

A. fail-safe defaults

B. password hash

C. adding a timestamp in requests

D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 encor exam questions 5

What are the two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Packets with a destination of 200.1.1.1 are translated to 10.1.1.1 or .2. respectively.

B. A packet that is sent to 200.1.1.1 from 10.1.1.1 is translated to 209.165.201.1 on R1.

C. R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.

D. R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.

E. R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside addresses.

Correct Answer: BC

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

350-401 encor exam questions 6

Which configuration must be applied to the HQ router to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers?

A. interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.134

B. interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.129

C. interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.133

D. interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.252 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.129

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

A new multicast server is being added to an existing PIM Sparse mode network. Which device in this network must the new server register with before its multicast traffic can be dispersed throughout the network?

A. IGMP Querier

B. Local PIM router

C. Local IGMP switch

D. Rendezvous Point (RP)

Correct Answer: D

reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/16-9/configuration_guide/sys_mgmt/b_169_ip_mcast_rtng_3850_cg/ ip_multicast_optimization__optimizing_pim_sparse_mode_in_a_large_ip_multicast_deployment.html

Question 8:

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?

A. PETR

B. PITR

C. map resolver

D. map server

Correct Answer: B

Proxy ingress tunnel router (PITR): answer \’PETR\’ PITR is an infrastructure LISP network entity that receives packets from non-LISP sites and encapsulates the packets to LISP sites or natively forwards them to non-LISP sites.

Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2992605 https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/5-0/LISPmobility/DCI_LISP_Host_Mobility/LISPmobile_2.html

Question 9:

Which device makes the decision for a wireless client to roam?

A. wireless client

B. wireless LAN controller

C. access point

D. WCS location server

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MR/WiFi_Basics_and_Best_Practices/Client_roaming_and_connectivity_decisions_explained

Question 10:

Which feature is supported by ElGRP but is not supported by OSPF?

A. route summarization

B. equal-cost load balancing

C. unequal-cost load balancing

D. route filtering

Correct Answer: C

Question 11:

Why would a log file contain a * next to the date?

A. The network device was receiving NTP time when the log messages were recorded

B. The network device was unable to reach the NTP server when the log messages were recorded.

C. The network device is not configured to use NTP

D. The network device is not configured to use NTP time stamps for logging.

Correct Answer: C

“Network device is not configured to use NTP” is the only answer which may justify the fact that the system clock has not been set and thus date and time are preceded by an asterisk (*),

Question 12:

What does Call Admission Control require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth?

A. SIP flow information

B. Wi-Fi multimedia

C. traffic specification

D. VoIP media session awareness

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

What does the destination MAC on the outer MAC header identify in a VXLAN packet?

A. the emote spine

B. the next hop

C. the leaf switch

D. the remote switch

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the switching architectures on the right.

Select and Place:

350-401 encor exam questions 14

Correct Answer:

350-401 encor exam questions 14-2
Question 15:

What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.)

A. core switch

B. vBond controller

C. edge node

D. access switch

E. border node

Correct Answer: CE

There are five basic device roles in the fabric overlay:

+

Control plane node: This node contains the settings, protocols, and mapping tables to provide the endpoint-to-location (EID-to-RLOC) mapping system for the fabric overlay. + Fabric border node: This fabric device (for example, core layer device) connects external Layer 3 networks to the SDA fabric.

+

Fabric edge node: This fabric device (for example, access or distribution layer device) connects wired endpoints to the SDA fabric.

+

Fabric WLAN controller (WLC): This fabric device connects APs and wireless endpoints to the SDA fabric.

+

Intermediate nodes: These are intermediate routers or extended switches that do not provide any sort of SD-Access fabric role other than underlay services.

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How to circumvent invalid CEH v12 312-50V12 dumps

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Question 1:

Clark, a professional hacker, was hired by an organization to gather sensitive Information about its competitors surreptitiously. Clark gathers the server IP address of the target organization using Whole footprinting.

Further, he entered the server IP address as input to an online tool to retrieve information such as the network range of the target organization and to identify the network topology and operating system used in the network. What is the online tool employed by Clark in the above scenario?

A. AOL

B. ARIN

C. DuckDuckGo

D. Baidu

Correct Answer: B

https://search.arin.net/rdap/?query=199.43.0.43

Question 2:

What is the proper response for a NULL scan if the port is closed?

A. SYN

B. ACK

C. FIN

D. PSH

E. RST

F. No response

Correct Answer: E

Question 3:

_________ is a tool that can hide processes from the process list, can hide files, and registry entries, and intercept keystrokes.

A. Trojan

B. RootKit

C. DoS tool

D. Scanner

E. Backdoor

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

Richard, an attacker, targets an MNC. In this process, he uses a footprinting technique to gather as much information as possible. Using this technique, he gathers domain information such as the target domain name, contact details of its owner, expiry date, and creation date.

With this information, he creates a map of the organization\’s network and misleads domain owners with social engineering to obtain internal details of its network. What type of footprinting technique is employed by Richard?

A. VoIP footprinting

B. VPN footprinting

C. Whois footprinting

D. Email footprinting

Correct Answer: D

Question 5:

What is the way to decide how a packet will move from an untrusted outside host to a protected inside that is behind a firewall, which permits the hacker to determine which ports are open and if the packets can pass through the packet-filtering of the firewall?

A. Session hijacking

B. Firewalking

C. Man-in-the-middle attack

D. Network sniffing

Correct Answer: B

Question 6:

What is the most common method to exploit the “Bash Bug” or “Shellshock” vulnerability?

A. SYN Flood

B. SSH

C. Through Web servers utilizing CGI (Common Gateway Interface) to send a malformed environment variable to a vulnerable Web server

D. Manipulate format strings in text fields

Correct Answer: C

Question 7:

Which protocol is used for setting up secure channels between two devices, typically in VPNs?

A. PEM

B. ppp

C. IPSEC

D. SET

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

These hackers have limited or no training and know how to use only basic techniques or tools.

What kind of hackers are we talking about?

A. Black-Hat Hackers A

B. Script Kiddies

C. White-Hat Hackers D. Gray-Hat Hacker

Correct Answer: B

Script Kiddies: These hackers have limited or no training and know how to use only basic techniques or tools. Even then they may not understand any or all of what they are doing.

Question 9:

Judy created a forum, one day. She discovers that a user is posting strange images without writing comments.

She immediately calls a security expert, who discovers that the following code is hidden behind those images:

What issue occurred for the users who clicked on the image?

A. The code injects a new cookie into the browser.

B. The code redirects the user to another site.

C. The code is a virus that is attempting to gather the user’s username and password.

D. This php file silently executes the code and grabs the user’s session cookie and session ID.

Correct Answer: D

document.write(); (Cookie and session ID theft)

https://www.softwaretestinghelp.com/cross-site-scripting-xss-attack-test/

As seen in the indicated question, cookies are escaped and sent to the script to variable `cookie\’. If the malicious user would inject this script into the website\’s code, then it will be executed in the user\’s browser and cookies will be sent to the malicious user.

Question 10:

As a Certified Ethical Hacker, you were contracted by a private firm to conduct an external security assessment through penetration testing.

What document describes the specifics of the testing, and the associated violations, and essentially protects both the organization\’s interest and your liabilities as a tester?

A. Service Level Agreement

B. Project Scope

C. Rules of Engagement

D. Non-Disclosure Agreement

Correct Answer: C

Question 11:

Bob, a system administrator at TPNQM SA, concluded one day that a DMZ is not needed if he properly configures the firewall to allow access just to servers/ports, which can have direct internet access, and block access to workstations.

Bob also concluded that DMZ makes sense just when a stateful firewall is available, which is not the case with TPNQM SA. In this context, what can you say?

A. Bob can be right since DMZ does not make sense when combined with stateless firewalls

B. Bob is partially right. He does not need to separate networks if he can create rules by destination IPs, one by one

C. Bob is totally wrong. DMZ is always relevant when the company has internet servers and workstations

D. Bob is partially right. DMZ does not make sense when a stateless firewall is available

Correct Answer: C

Question 12:

What does the -oX flag do in a Nmap scan?

A. Perform an express scan

B. Output the results in truncated format to the screen

C. Output the results in XML format to a file

D. Perform a Xmas scan

Correct Answer: C

https://nmap.org/book/man-output.html

-oX – Requests that XML output be directed to the given filename.

Question 13:

There are multiple cloud deployment options depending on how isolated a customer\’s resources are from those of other customers. Shared environments share the costs and allow each customer to enjoy lower operations expenses.

One solution Is for a customer to Join a group of users or organizations to share a cloud environment. What is this cloud deployment option called?

A. Hybrid

B. Community

C. Public

D. Private

Correct Answer: B

Question 14:

If a tester is attempting to ping a target that exists but receives no response or a response that states the destination is unreachable, ICMP may be disabled and the network may be using TCP. Which other option could the tester use to get a response from a host using TCP?

A. Traceroute

B. Hping

C. TCP ping

D. Broadcast ping

Correct Answer: B

https://tools.kali.org/information-gathering/hping3

Question 15:

Which is the first step followed by Vulnerability Scanners for scanning a network?

A. OS Detection

B. Firewall detection

C. TCP/UDP Port scanning

D. Checking if the remote host is alive

Correct Answer: D

Vulnerability scanning solutions perform vulnerability penetration tests on the organizational network in three steps:

1. Locating nodes: The first step in vulnerability scanning is to locate live hosts in the target network using various scanning techniques.

2. Performing service and OS discovery on them: After detecting the live hosts in the target network, the next step is to enumerate the open ports and services and the operating system on the target systems.

3. Testing those services and OS for known vulnerabilities: Finally, after identifying the open services and the operating system running on the target nodes, they are tested for known vulnerabilities.

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How to pass the CCNA 200-301 exam in 2023

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    Question 1:

    Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow?

    A. shaping

    B. policing

    C. CBWFQ

    D. LLQ

    Correct Answer: B

    Question 2:

    Which field within the access request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

    A. authorized services

    B. authenticator

    C. username

    D. password

    Correct Answer: D

    Question 3:

    Drag and Drop

    Drag and drop the IPv4 network subnets from the left onto the correct usable host ranges on the right.

    Select and Place:

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 3

    Correct Answer:

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 3-2

    This subnet question requires us to grasp how to subnet very well. To quickly find out the subnet range, we have to find out the increment and the network address of each subnet. Let\’s take an example with the subnet 172.28.228.144/18:

    From the /18 (= 1100 0000 in the 3rd octet), we find out the increment is 64. Therefore the network address of this subnet must be the greatest multiple of the increment but not greater than the value in the 3rd octet (228).

    We can find out the 3rd octet of the network address is 192 (because 192 = 64 * 3 and 192 < 228) -> The network address is 172.28.192.0.

    So the first usable host should be 172.28.192.1 and it matches with the 5th answer on the right. In this case, we don’t need to calculate the broadcast address because we found the correct answer.

    Let \’s taking another example with subnet 172.28.228.144/23 -> The increment is 2 (as /23 = 1111 1110 in 3rd octet) -> The 3rd octet of the network address is 228 (because 228 is the multiply of 2 and equal to the 3rd octet) -> The network address is 172.28.228.0 ->

    The first usable host is 172.28.228.1. It is not necessary but if we want to find out the broadcast address of this subnet, we can find out the next network address, which is 172.28. (228 + the increment number).0 or

    172.28.230.0 then reduce 1 bit -> 172.28.229.255 is the broadcast address of our subnet. Therefore the last usable host is 172.28.229.254.

    Question 4:

    Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

    A. 172.9.0.0/16

    B. 172.28.0.0/16

    C. 192.0.0.0/8

    D. 209.165.201.0/24

    Correct Answer: B

    This question asks about the private ranges of IPv4 addresses. The private ranges of each class of IPv4 are listed below:

    1. Class A private IP address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

    2. Class B private IP address ranges from 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

    3. Class C private IP address ranges from 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.255.255

    Only network 172.28.0.0/16 belongs to the private IP address (of class B).

    Question 5:

    How does authentication differ from authorization?

    A. Authentication is used to verify a person\’s identity, and authorization is used to create syslog messages for logins.

    B. Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the network.

    C. Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorization determines what resource a user can access.

    D. Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization is used to determine what resources a user can access.

    Correct Answer: C

    Question 6:

    Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

    A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.

    B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.

    C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.

    D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.

    E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

    F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

    Correct Answer: BDE

    Question 7:

    Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)

    A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network.

    B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network.

    C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network.

    D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4.

    E. It uses the default administrative distance.

    F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

    Correct Answer: AE

    Question 8:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 8

    Which command provides this output?

    A. show ip route B. show cdp neighbor

    C. show ip interface

    D. show interface

    Correct Answer: B

    Question 9:

    Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?

    A. Ansible

    B. Python

    C. Puppet

    D. Chef

    Correct Answer: A

    Question 10:

    Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?

    A. {“key”: “value”}

    B. [“key”, “value”]

    C. {“key”, “value”}

    D. (“key”: “value”)

    Correct Answer: A

    Question 11:

    Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

    A. WPA2 + AES

    B. WPA + AES

    C. WEP

    D. WPA + TKIP

    Correct Answer: A

    Question 12:

    Refer to the exhibit.

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 12

    Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 12-2

    A. Option A

    B. Option B

    C. Option C

    D. Option D

    Correct Answer: B

    ipv6 unicast-routing statement included (IPv6 is enabled on the router). Compared to the exhibit, Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 have correct configurations. The route to subnet 2001:db8:4::/64 points to R18\’s Fa1/0 (correct next-hop).

    Question 13:

    DRAG DROP

    Drag the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

    Select and Place:

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 13

    Correct Answer:

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 13-2
    Question 14:

    Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 14

    A. Set PMF to Required.

    B. Enable MAC Filtering.

    C. Enable WPA Policy.

    D. Set Fast Transition to Enabled

    Correct Answer: A

    Question 15:

    Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?

    free CCNA 200-301 exam questions 15

    A. Layer 2 switch

    B. Router

    C. Load balancer

    D. firewall

    Correct Answer: B

    PC–A and PC-B are not in the same network. Switches send traffic in layer 2 and within the same VLA while routers route traffic to different subnets and at layer 3.

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    New question 1 of 13

    Your company wants to Increase access security In both their NFS and ISCSI environments. Currently ISCSI Is not authenticated and NFS relies only on export policies for security. Which two enhancements do you use to satisfy this new criteria? (Choose two.)

    A. Enable Kerberos for NFS exports.
    B. Enable Kerberos for iSCSI LUNaccess.
    C. Enable Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) for NFS exports.
    D. Enable Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) for ISCSI LUN access.

    Correct Answer: BC

    New question 2 of 13

    Exhibit.

    After an ONTAP upgrade, you notice that several cluster LIFs are not on their home ports as shown in the exhibit. Which LIF option would change this outcome?

    A. the subnet-name option
    B. the failover-policy option
    C. the auto-revert option
    D. the data-protocol option

    Correct Answer: D

    New question 3 of 13

    Which two types of capacity tiers are supported with FabrlcPool aggregates In ONTAP 9.8? (Choose two.)

    A. SWIFT Object Store
    B. NFS Export
    C. StorageGRID Object Storage
    D. S3 Object Store

    Correct Answer: BC

    New question 4 of 13

    Exhibit.

    You recently added a new ESXi host to your VMware vSphere cluster. However, you cannot mount any of the existing NFS datastores to the host. Referring to the exhibit, which action solves the problem?

    A. Add NFSv4 to the access protocols.
    B. Enable Kerberos in the export policy.
    C. Add SMB/CIFS to the access protocols.
    D. Add HOST 3\’s IP address to the NFS export policy.

    Correct Answer: B

    New question 5 of 13

    Your company wants their newly Installed ONTAP system to automatically send telemetry data to NetApp to provide early notification of any security risks, bug fixes, and ONTAP updates. Furthermore, In case of hardware failures, a support case should be opened automatically at NetApp. Which two NetApp components satisfy the requirements? (Choose two.)

    A. Cloud Insights
    B. Active IQ
    C. ONTAP AutoSupport
    D. Active IQ Unified Manager

    Correct Answer: AB

    New question 6 of 13

    You want to prepare your ONTAP cluster and your ESXI cluster to connect NFS datastores over a 10-GbE network using Jumbo frames. In this scenario, which three configurations would accomplish this task? (Choose three.)

    A. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9000 for your ESXi hosts.
    B. Enable jumbo frames with an MTU of 9216 for your switches.
    C. Enable Jumbo frames with an MTU of 1500 for your ESXI hosts.
    D. Enable Jumbo frames with an MTU of 1500 for your ONTAP cluster.
    E. Enable Jumbo frames with an MTU of 9000 for your ONTAP cluster.

    Correct Answer: BDE

    New question 7 of 13

    A user wants existing data in a FlexVol created in ONTAP 9.1 to be placed into a FlexGroup volume with ONTAP 9.8. In this scenario, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

    A. Use XCP to copy data from a FlexVol to a FlexGroup.
    B. Use SnapMirror to replicate data from FlexVol to FlexGroup.
    C. You can convert the FlexVol volume to a FlexGroup volume.
    D. A FlexVol to FlexGroup conversion is not supported.

    Correct Answer: AD

    New question 8 of 13

    Your company runs a NetApp AFF A220 cluster as a file server for NFS and SMB. You want to use one of the unused ports to connect a single Windows host directly, using FC. Youhave converted the UTA2 ports e0e and e0f to FC and equipped them with a 16-Gbps FC transceiver. Your Windows host fails to connect to the storage.

    In this scenario, which action solves the problem?

    A. Use an FC switch between storage and host.
    B. Use the arbitrated loop topology on storage and host.
    C. Use the point-to-point topology on all ports.
    D. Use an Ethernet switch between storage and host.

    Correct Answer: B

    New question 9 of 13

    You have commissioned a new AFF A250 MetroCluster over IP configuration. Your company requires an automatic switchover to the surviving site In case of a site disaster. What do you need to configure to fulfill this requirement?

    A. cluster failover
    B. ONTAP Mediator service
    C. storage failover
    D. automated unplanned switchover

    Correct Answer: B

    New question 10 of 13

    Exhibit.

    You have a 2-node NetApp FAS2750 ONTAP cluster. You create a new 20-GB LUN In a new 100-GB volume and write 10 GB of data to the LUN. No storage efficiencies are enabled for the volume or aggregate.
    Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

    A. ONTAP reports that the volume Is using 10 GB of Its containing aggregate.
    B. ONTAP reports the volume as 20% full.
    C. ONTAP reports that the volume Is using 100 GB of its containing aggregate.
    D. ONTAP reports the volume as 10% full.

    Correct Answer: BC

    New question 11 of 13

    After creating several volumes, you notice that the hosting aggregates Immediately show a decrease In available space. Which volume setting would prevent this outcome?

    A. space SLO set to “thick”
    B. space guarantee set to “none”
    C. space SLO set to “semi-thick”
    D. space guarantee set to “volume”

    Correct Answer: C

    New question 12 of 13

    You have created a new FlexCache cache volume and want to warm the cache before clients access the cache volume for the first time. In this scenario, how would you accomplish this task?

    A. Prepopulate the cache volume with data from the origin volume using the flexcache prepopulate start command.
    B. Enable block-level Invalidation using the volume flexcache origin config modify command.
    C. Copy the data from the origin volume to the cache volume with the NetApp XCP Migration Tool.
    D. Synchronize the origin and cache first with the volume flexcache sync-properties command.

    Correct Answer: C

    New question 13 of 13

    Your company requests that the monthly performance data of your ONTAP 9.8 cluster be exported to a CSV file for further processing. In this scenario, which three NetApp products satisfy this requirement? (Choose three.)

    A. Active IQ Unified Manager
    B. Cloud Insights
    C. Active IQ Config Advisor
    D. ONTAP System Manager
    E. Active IQ OneCollect

    Correct Answer: ACD

    ……

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    Free PL-300 Dumps Microsoft POWER BI Exam Questions – Sep 2022

    NEW QUESTION 1

    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

    After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You are modeling data by using Microsoft Power BI. Part of the data model is a large Microsoft SQL Server table named Order that has more than 100 million records.

    During the development process, you need to import a sample of the data from the Order table. Solution: You add a WHERE clause to the SQL statement. Does this meet the goal?

    A. Yes
    B. No

    Correct Answer: A

    The WHERE clause has its effects before the data is imported.
    Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/connect-data/service-gateway-sql-tutorial

    NEW QUESTION 2

    You need to recommend a strategy to consistently define the business unit, department, and product category data and make the data usable across reports. What should you recommend?

    A. Create a shared dataset for each standardized entity.
    B. Create dataflows for the standardized data and make the dataflows available for use in all imported datasets.
    C. For every report, create and use a single shared dataset that contains the standardized data.
    D. For the three entities, create exports of the data from the Power Bl model to Excel and store the data in Microsoft OneDrive for others to use as a source.

    Correct Answer: B

    NEW QUESTION 3

    You have a prospective customer list that contains 1,500 rows of data. The list contains the following fields:
    1. First name
    2. Last name
    3. Email address
    4. State/Region
    5. Phone number

    You import the list into Power Query Editor. You need to ensure that the list contains records for each State/Region to which you want to target a marketing campaign. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

    A. Open the Advanced Editor.
    B. Select Column quality.
    C. Enable Column profiling based on the entire dataset.
    D. Select Column distribution.
    E. Select Column profile.

    Correct Answer: CE

    In the Power query, the load preview by default is 1000 rows. By default, the column quality also only looks at the first 1000 rows. You can verify this by the status bar at the bottom of the Power query window. To change the profiling so it analyses the entire column of data, select the profiling status in the status bar. Then select Column profiling based on the entire data set.
    https://theexcelclub.com/data-profiling-views-in-power-query-excel-and-power-bi/

    NEW QUESTION 4

    HOTSPOT
    You have a folder of monthly transaction extracts. You plan to create a report to analyze the transaction data. You receive the following email message: “Hi, I’ve put 24 files of monthly transaction data onto the shared drive. File Transactions201801.csv through Transaction201812.csv have four columns while files Transactions201901.csv through Transaction201912.csv have the same four columns plus an additional three columns. Each file contains 10 to 50 transactions.”

    You get data from the folder and select Combine and Load. The Combine Files dialog box is shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)

    For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
    NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

    Hot Area:

    Box 1: Yes
    The four columns used in the 2018 transactions are already displayed.
    Box 2: Yes
    The columns used are based on the entire dataset. The additional columns in the 2019 files will be detected.
    Box 3: Yes

    Note: Under the hoods, Power BI will automatically detect which delimiter to use, and may even promote the first row as headers. You can manually change the delimiter, or define how Power BI should handle data types. You can set it to automatically detect data types based on the first 200 rows or the entire dataset or you can even opt out of the detection of data types.

    NEW QUESTION 5

    You have a Power BI dashboard that monitors the quality of manufacturing processes. The dashboard contains the following elements:
    A line chart that shows the number of defective products manufactured by day. A KPI visual that shows the current daily percentage of defective products manufactured. You need to be notified when the daily percentage of defective products manufactured exceeds 3%.

    What should you create?

    A. a QandA visual
    B. a subscription
    C. a smart narrative visual
    D. an alert

    Correct Answer: D

    NEW QUESTION 6

    You have a Microsoft Power Bl dashboard. You need to ensure that consumers of the dashboard can give you feedback that will be visible to the other consumers of the dashboard. What should you use?

    A. Feedback
    B. Subscribe
    C. Comments
    D. Mark is a favorite

    Correct Answer: C

    https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/consumer/end-user-comment

    NEW QUESTION 7

    You have the following requirements:
    1. The export of reports that contain Personally Identifiable Information (Pll) must be prevented.
    2. Data used for financial decisions must be reviewed and approved before use.
    For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point

    NEW QUESTION 8

    You need to review the data for which there are concerns before creating the data model. What should you do in Power Query Editor?

    A. Select Column distribution.
    B. Select the sales_amount column and apply a number filter.
    C. Select Column profile, and then select the sales_amount column.
    D. Transform the sales_amount column to replace negative values with 0.

    Correct Answer: D

    Scenario: Data Concerns
    You are concerned with the quality and completeness of the sales data. You plan to verify the sales data for negative sales amounts. How to convert negative numbers into positive numb, editor and right click, select transform, and choose an absolute value. That would give the positive number outcome you\’re looking for.

    Reference:
    https://www.xspdf.com/resolution/50510644.html

    NEW QUESTION 9

    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

    After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that is saved to Microsoft SharePoint Online. The workbook contains several Power View sheets.

    You need to recreate the Power View sheets as reports in the Power Bl service. Solution: From the Power Bl service, get the data from SharePoint Online, and then click Connect Does this meet the goal?

    A. Yes
    B. No

    Correct Answer: B

    We need to click “Import”, not “Connect”.
    References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-excel-workbook-files

    NEW QUESTION 10

    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

    After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You are modeling data by using Microsoft Power BI. Part of the data model is a large Microsoft SQL Server table named Order that has more than 100 million records. During the development process, you need to import a sample of the data from the Order table.

    Solution: From Power Query Editor, you import the table and then add a filter step to the query. Does this meet the goal?

    A. Yes
    B. No

    Correct Answer: A

    NEW QUESTION 11

    Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

    After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You have a Microsoft Excel workbook that is saved to Microsoft SharePoint Online. The workbook contains several Power View sheets.

    You need to recreate the Power View sheets as reports in the Power Bl service. Solution: Copy the workbook to Microsoft OneDrive for Business. From Excel, click Publish to Power Bl, and then click
    Upload. Does this meet the goal?

    A. Yes
    B. No

    Correct Answer: B

    NEW QUESTION 12

    You create a dataset sourced from dozens of flat files in Azure Blob storage. The dataset uses incremental refresh. From powerbi.com, you deploy the dataset and several related reports to Microsoft Power BI Premium capacity. You discover that the dataset refresh fails after the refresh runs out of resources.
    What is a possible cause of the issue?

    A. Query folding is not occurring.
    B. You selected Only refresh complete periods.
    C. The data type of the column used to partition the data changed.
    D. A filter is missing on the report.

    Correct Answer: A

    The Power BI service partitions data based on a date range. This is what enables only certain partitions to be refreshed incrementally. To make this work, the partition filter conditions are pushed down to the source system by including them in the queries. Using Power Query terminology, this is called “query folding”. It is not recommended that incremental refresh is used when the required query folding cannot take place.

    Reference: https://powerbi.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/incremental-refresh-query-folding/

    NEW QUESTION 13

    HOTSPOT
    You need to create a relationship in the dataset for RLS. What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
    NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

    Box 1: many-to-one
    Each employee in the Sales Employees table is assigned to one sales region. Multiple employees can be assigned to each region. The Suppliers table has a Region column.
    Box 2: Suppliers table

    ……

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    A few users have been noticing ongoing degradation of performance in a VDI environment A technician checks the
    environment and discovers the shared VM is experiencing maximum CPU utilization Which of the following will the
    Does the technician MOST likely configure to resolve the issue?

    A. Network capacity
    B. Resource pooling
    C. Memory allocation
    D. Replication scripts

    Correct Answer: B

    Q3.

    A Windows 10 Pro user wants to initialize BitLocker to protect the system\\’s data while it is at rest. The computer does
    not have a TPM. Which of the following is required to satisfy this need?

    A. A BD-RE disc
    B. An internal hard drive
    C. A USB flash drive
    D. A network share

    Correct Answer: B

    Q4.

    A technician is installing a pair of 7.2K rpm hard drives into a NAS unit. Which of the following will provide the HIGHEST levels of performance for the setup?

    A. RAID 0
    B. RAID 1
    C. RAID 5
    D. RAID 10

    Correct Answer: C

    Q5.

    A technician deployed a new computer and patched the unit to the data jack. However, no Ethernet connection is
    detected. The technician suspects the patch panel is incorrectly numbered. Which of the following tools will the
    technician MOST likely use to locate the jack on the patch panel?

    A. A multimeter
    B. A tone generator and a probe
    C. A loopback plug
    D. A cable tester

    Correct Answer: B

    Q6.

    A technician was asked to virtualize four existing PCs before decommissioning them. The resulting VMs are imported
    into a new VM workstation running a hypervisor on top of an OS Three of the VMs are running property, but the entire
    system locks up when trying to start the fourth VM. Which of the following should the technician have reviewed prior to creating the VMs to prevent this from occurring? (Select TWO)

    A. Hypervisor requirements
    B. Storage requirements
    C. Resource requirements
    D. Network requirements
    E. Backup requirements
    F. Security requirements

    Correct Answer: AF

    Q7.

    SIMULATION
    You need to configure your mobile device to send and receive electronic messages from your company. You must use the company\’s WLAN as all e-mail services are on default non-secure ports. The company\’s WLAN is broadcasting across the company for easier access. Users must authenticate to the server with the same credentials in order to send and receive emails. Authentication should be enforced in the settings of the mobile device using the following parameters:

    • Username: [email protected]
    • Password: P@$$w0rd
    • Outgoing server: mail.techies.com
    • Incoming server: pop3.techies.com
    • Company SSID: Techies
    • Security Key: CA:FE:33:71:00

    INSTRUCTIONS:
    Update the mobile device\’s parameters to fit the criteria and support the strongest encryption available.
    If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

    A. Check the answer in the explanation.

    Correct Answer: A

    For the WiFi setup, do the following:
    1. Enable 802.11 b/g Radio
    2. Choose the Techies SSID, and enter the CA: FE:33:71:00 Security Key.
    3. Choose the “Same as Incoming Server” option below.

    Q8.

    A technician needs to install an IP-based camera in a remote location. The technician runs a Cat 6 cable to the location
    and connects it to the camera. Which of the following is needed for the camera to operate?

    A. USB to Ethernet adapter
    B. DVI cable
    C. PoE switch
    D. H.261 codec

    Correct Answer: C

    Q9.

    A customer recently moved a high-end graphics card from a known-working computer to a different computer. The
    computer works without issue when viewing email and web pages or when using certain applications. However, when a
    game with high-end graphics requirements is opened, the program will run for a few minutes before the computer shuts down. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the problem?

    A. Power supply wattage
    B. Video RAM
    C. CPU frequency
    D. Monitor resolution

    Correct Answer: A

    Q10.

    Which of the following peripheral types is MOST likely to be used to input actions into a PC?

    A. Webcam
    B. Mouse
    C. Monitor
    D. Optical drive

    Correct Answer: B

    Q11.

    A shipping department is having problems with its thermal label printer. Two columns on the left are not appearing on all labels. Which of the following should a technician do FIRST?

    A. Verify the ribbon is correctly aligned to the label
    B. Run a label calibration
    C. Remove stuck labels from the print path
    D. Replace the print head

    Correct Answer: A

    Q12.

    A user is having trouble printing and has asked a technician for help. The technician is able to print remotely from the
    print server. Which of the following will the technician MOST likely need to perform NEXT? (Choose two.)

    A. Modify the environment variables on the computer
    B. Check the AD account settings for the user
    C. Replace the printer\’s network cable
    D. Clear the print queue on the server
    E. Check the network settings on the computer
    F. Delete all the files from the server print spooler

    Correct Answer: DE

    Q13.

    A customer wants to purchase a new home computer. The machine will mainly be used for internal browsing and
    streaming video, except on weekends when the customer \’ son will use it to play games with friends. Which of the
    following should the technician focus on to meet these requirements?

    A. 80mm case fans
    B. Four-core processor
    C. RAID 5 array
    D. 16GB DDR2 memory
    E. Dual monitors
    F. Encrypted hard drive

    Correct Answer: BE

    For more questions, please get the full Pass4itSure 220-1001 dumps: https://www.pass4itsure.com/220-1001.html

    2 Cisco 500-240 Exam Passing Tips We Swear [With Example Questions]

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    Cisco Mobile Backhaul for Field Engineers

    What is Cisco 500-240 exam?

    Cisco Service Provider Mobile Backhaul for Field Engineers (CMBFE) is abbreviated as 500-240 CMBFE can also be referred to as the 500-240 exam. This 40-minute exam consists of 25 to 35 questions and you can earn Cisco Channel Partner Program certification.

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    Cisco 500-240 Online Q&A

    QUESTION 1

    Match each device series on the left with its placement in an MBH network on the right. (Not all options will be used).

    QUESTION 2

    What command is used to insert the core node area border router into the data path?

    A. update-source loopback0
    B. set path-selection backup 1 install
    C. next-hop-self
    D. insert-data-path

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 3

    Which technology uses two or three antennas to receive (input) the signal and two or three radios to transmit (output),
    plus special signal processing to improve range, reliability, and throughput.

    A. HSPA
    B. CDMA
    C. LTE
    D. MIMO

    Correct Answer: D

    QUESTION 4

    Which three clock types can an ASR920 router be configured as? (Choose three.)

    A. Boundary clock
    B. Clock
    C. Ordinary clock
    D. Regular clock
    E. Transparent clock
    F. Ordinary, Regular

    Correct Answer: ACE

    QUESTION 5

    SyncE clocking is provided at what OSI layer?

    A. Layer 3
    B. Layer 2 and 3
    C. Layer 1
    D. Layer 2

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 6

    What are the three purposes of partitioning the backhaul network into independent IGP domains? (Choose three.)

    A. to not enhance stability
    B. to reduce the size of the routing and forwarding tables on individual routers
    C. to ensure that reachability is not possible between domains
    D. to not ensure stability
    E. faster convergence
    F. to enhance stability

    Correct Answer: BEF

    QUESTION 7

    What can PTP be used to synchronize?

    A. Time, frequency, phase
    B. Rate
    C. Phase, time
    D. Frequency

    Correct Answer: A

    QUESTION 8

    High availability at the transport network layer is provided through the combination of what three technologies? (Choose three.)

    A. Alternate Route
    B. Loop-Free Alternate Fast Reroute
    C. BGP
    D. HSRP
    E. BFD
    F. BGP Core and Edge Fast Reroute and Edge protection

    Correct Answer: ABF

    QUESTION 9

    What does virtualization of the core route reflectors do?

    A. limit the availability
    B. does not enhance resiliency
    C. enhance resiliency or availability
    D. adds complexity

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 10

    Which type of backhaul network does the Cisco Unified RAN Backhaul use?

    A. SONET
    B. ATM
    C. IP MPLS
    D. TDM

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 11

    When configuring SAToP what must the framing be configured as?

    A. Framed
    B. Native
    C. Structured
    D. Unframed

    Correct Answer: B

    QUESTION 12

    Which technology is a mechanism that emulates point-to-point connection over a packet-switched network?

    A. LFA FRR
    B. SyncE
    C. PWE3
    D. TDM

    Correct Answer: C

    QUESTION 13

    Which two options configures an ASR920 router as a hybrid clock? (Choose two.)

    A. ptp clock boundary domain 0
    B. ptp clock boundary domain 0 hybrid
    C. ptp clock ordinary domain 0 hybrid
    D. ptp clock ordinary domain 0
    E. ptp clock

    Correct Answer: BC

    QUESTION 14

    What type of PW is the CESoPSN?

    A. Structured and unstructured
    B. Unstructured
    C. Unframed
    D. Structured

    Correct Answer: D

    Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr903/software/guide/cem/16-7-1/b-cemds3-xe-16-7-1-asr900/b-cem-ds3-xe-16-7-1-asr900_chapter_010.pdf

    QUESTION 15

    What is the preferred method for frequency synchronization in a Unified MPLS for IP MBH Communication?

    A. SyncE/IEEE 1588
    B. Local devices Clocking Sync
    C. IP MBH Communication doesn\\’t require Synchronization
    D. NTP

    Correct Answer: A

    Also, Cisco 500-240 pdf Q&A share: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1tRvA_AwuiY6mZZkJ6OyGlj6QR6vvggew/view?usp=sharing

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