Category: CCIE

[100% Valid Cisco Questions] Easily To Pass 2018 Latest Cisco 400-151 Dumps PDF CCIE Data Center Test Questions and Answers With High Quality Youtube Study

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 400-151 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:
2.Which IPv4 address classes are reserved for specific uses and may not be assigned to hosts? (Choose two.)
A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
E.E
400-151 exam Correct:D E
3.What IPX routing protocol is best suited for an internetwork that contains 138 routers, multiple redundant routes that require load balancing, and three WAN links? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
Correct:A
4.Which two components of the TCP/IP protocol suite map to the Host-to-Host layer of the DOD model? (Choose two.)
A.IP B.TCP
C.FTP
D.NFS
E.UDP
F.ARP
400-151 dumps Correct:B E
5.Click on the Exhibit button. A Class B network uses the subnet mask 255.255.224.0. The network will reserve subnets of all “0’s” and all “1’s”. What is the maximum number of available subnets?
Answer:
A.6
Correct:A
6.Select the link state routing protocols. (Choose two.)
A.RIP B.LAT
C.SNA
D.NLSP
E.RTMP
F.OSPF
400-151 pdf Correct:D F
7.What protocol is normally considered to be both a LAN and WAN protocol?
A.PPP
B.ATM
C.X.25
D.SLIP E.ISDN
F.Frame Relay
Correct:B
8.Identify the network devices associated with the Data Link layer of the OSI model. (Choose two.)
A.NICs
B.routers
C.switches
D.gateways
E.repeaters
F.active hubs
400-151 vce Correct:A C
9.What is the maximum number of bytes that can be dedicated to the station address portion of an IPv4 address? Answer:
A.THREE
Correct:A
10.What IPX routing protocol generally uses the least bandwidth, provides the fastest routing updates, and offers scalability for large internetworks? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
400-151 exam Correct:A
11.What are two disadvantages to RIP? (Choose two.)
A.static routing B.count
to-infinity C.resource
intensive D.slow
convergence time E.lack
of industry support
Correct:B D
12.A network uses a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0. It reserves host addresses containing all “1’s”. How many host addresses are available for each subnet?
A.255
B.512
C.1023
D.2047
400-151 dumps  Correct:D
13.What protocol provides access to the X.500 and is specifically targeted at simple management
and browser applications? Answer:
A.LDAP,(LIGHTWEIGHTDIRECTORYACCESSPROTOCOL)
Correct:A
14.How many characters may be in a single domain name label?
A.16
B.63
C.120
D.255
400-151 pdf Correct:B
15.Which IPX network addresses are reserved for special purposes? (Choose three.)
A.00000000
B.11111111
C.FFFFFFFF
D.FFFFFFFE
E.AAAAAAAA
F.AAAA0000
Correct:A C D
16.How many bits are in an IPv4 address? Answer:
A.32
400-151 vce Correct:A
17.What IPX routing protocol offers load balancing capabilities without reducing the physical size of the internetwork? Answer:
A.NLSP,(NETWARELINKSERVICESPROTOCOL)
Correct:A
18.What information is exchanged in an initial “hello” packet between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
A.hello interval
B.router priority number
C.full link state database
D.IP address and subnet mask
E.summary of the link state database
F.summary of the link state advertising database
400-151 exam Correct:A B D
19.A network administrator has been assigned a Class B network address of 150.225.0.0. The administrator then subnetted the network with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0. If the administrator is reserving node addresses of all “0’s” and all “1’s,” what is the range of available node addresses for the subnet 150.225.32.0?
A.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.44.254
B.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.47.254
C.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.48.254
D.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.50.254
E.150.225.32.1 to 150.225.52.254
F.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.44.254
G.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.46.254
H.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.48.254
I.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.52.254
J.150.225.33.1 to 150.225.54.254
Correct:A
20.How many IP addresses must be combined to create the IP supernet address 215.100.16.0/21?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.6
F.7
G.8
H.9
I.10
400-151 dumps Correct:G
21. An example of a module exhibiting temporal cohesion is a combination of .
A. the control and management of two onboard hardware clocks
B. a 40 millisecond periodic navigation function and a 40 millisecond periodic display update function
C. several mathematical functions such as the sine, cosine, and arctangent functions
D. the vehicle speed and acceleration management functions
Answer: B
22. What two actions must occur in systems that use overlaying with a disk drive backing store? (Choose two.)
A. Only data is stored on the disk and code is stored in RAM.
B. A task executing in RAM can also execute code that is stored on the disk.
C. The operating system must prevent each task in RAM from accessing RAM outside the area reserved for it.
D. The code for the currently executing tasks is stored in RAM and that for the currently inactive tasks is stored on the disk, as managed by the operating system.
400-151 pdf Answer: CD
23. Which two statements about static memory allocation are true? (Choose two.)
A. Garbage collection is not required.
B. Memory fragmentation does not occur.
C. Memory allocation units are always the same fixed size.
D. Tasks must inform the run-time (e.g., operating system) the total amount of memory they will need before they begin requesting memory.
Answer: AB
24. POSIX .
A. is the same as UNIX
B. is not designed for real-time systems
C. does not support asynchronous I/O
D. is an operating system interface standard
400-151 vce Answer: D
25. A scheduler runs tasks to completion instead of pre-empting tasks by time slicing or according to priority. What two actions will occur? (Choose two.)
A. Maximize the number of completed tasks per unit of time
B. Minimize the task scheduling and context switching overheads
C. Honor the commitment made to complete the task once it has begun executing
D. Share the processor time fairly among ready tasks
Answer: BC
26. Which two statements are true of a monitor for synchronization? (Choose two.)
A. No concurrent access by tasks is allowed to any resource(s) within a monitor.
B. One monitor may encapsulate any number of resources and their synchronization functions.
C. If a requesting task enters a monitor but finds the resource isn’t available, the task exits the monitor and is placed at the end of the monitor’s external queue.
D. If two tasks are waiting in a monitor’s queues for separate resources, when the task that has been accessing a resource finishes doing so, all the queues with waiting tasks are served round-robin.
400-151 exam Answer: AB
27. Which two are POSIX real-time extensions? (Choose two.)
A. suspend / resume API’s
B. direct cyclic executive support
C. task synchronization
D. priority-based preemptive task scheduling
Answer: CD
28. Which two of these techniques would successfully avoid mutual exclusion deadlocks? (Choose two.)
A. Set up a circular dependency of tasks and resources
B. Allow a task’s use of a resource to be pre-empted
C. Require tasks to acquire and use only one resource at a time
D. Require tasks to acquire resources in order of the tasks’ priorities
400-151 dumps Answer: BC
29. The priority of a runnable task blocked on a resource request is temporarily changed to be the same as the priority of another task. Which two phrases could describe the new priority? (Choose two.)
A. The priority of the highest priority task
B. The priority of the lowest priority task which uses the resource
C. The priority of the higher priority task being blocked by the lower priority one
D. The ceiling priority of the resource on which the lower priority task is blocked
Answer: CD
30. What two results occur by changing priorities dynamically? (Choose two.)
A. Reduces overhead
B. Increases overhead
C. May starve lower priority tasks
D. Avoids the need for priority queues
400-151 pdf Answer: BC
31. A representative benchmark differs from a synthetic benchmark in that a .
A. representative benchmark models a representative ideal application
B. synthetic benchmark precisely predicts specific application performance
C. representative benchmark models a real application’s execution characteristics
D. synthetic benchmark must be developed by the same team that will build the application
Answer: C
32. Network protocol models are described as layers that .
A. permit separation of concerns of lower layers (e.g., hardware) from higher layers (e.g., application)
B. add increasing efficiency to higher layers (e.g., application) than lower layers (e.g., hardware)
C. are highly consistent in number and function among different protocols
D. provide efficient application access to network hardware addresses
400-151 vce Answer: A
33. The primary requirement for an RTOS is to .
A. maximize application speed and minimize memory utilization
B. enable fast control and data transfer to critical system devices
C. enable the application to meet both its functional and temporal requrements
D. permit the application to efficiently access all resources (e.g., I/O and memory)
Answer: C
34. A strictly conforming POSIX application .
A. uses all POSIX functions and standard options
B. uses only IEEE tested conforming operating systems
C. uses only POSIX required API’s for its OS functionality
D. runs on all operating systems whose vendors claim POSIX conformance
400-151 exam Answer: C
35. Which statement accurately describes where a “mark” exists in the MDA model hierarchy?
A. as part of the PSM
B. as part of the PIM
C. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PIM
D. as part of a transparent layer placed over a PSM
Answer: C
36. In MDA practice, transformations from PIM to PSM . (Choose TWO.)
A. may be automated
B. are required for all systems
C. may be hand generated
D. always produce executable code
E. are always implemented in the QVT action language
400-151 dumps Answer: AC
37. What does the term “Platform independence” mean?
A. The application model can be moved to every other platform that is available.
B. The application model is independent of the features of any particular platform from some class of platforms.
C. The application is written in a high-level programming language such as Java or C++.
D. The application model is independent of the hardware platform where the application may be deployed.
Answer: B
38. What is an “implementation model”?
A. A PIM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into operation.
B. A model that includes C++ source code for all classes in the model.
C. A PSM that provides all of the information needed to construct a system and put it into operation.
D. A file that is executable on some computer system.
400-151 pdf Answer: C
39. What two functions does the Model transformation specification provide? (Choose TWO.)
A. Always prescribes a one-to-one mapping from input model elements to output model elements.
B. Prescribes the transformations that merge a set of models to produce another set of models.
C. Are implemented using the OMG standard Model Transformation language.
D. Prescribes the transformation of one model to another model.
Answer: BD
40. A metamodel is a .
A. set of UML templates for drawing system models
B. special kind of model that specifies a modeling language
C. collection of stereotypes and classes that define a set of architectural patterns
D. conceptual pattern for a class of application systems
400-151 vce Answer: B

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[100% Valid Cisco Questions] Latest Upload Cisco 400-101 Dumps PDF CCIE Routing and Switching Exam Questions And Answers With Low Price Youtube Training

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Pass4itsure Free Cisco 400-101 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)  Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
400-101 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams. A full list of codecs and their payload type values can be found at the link below:
 Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: B
Explanation:
 In order to understand how the load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.
Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)  Which statement is true regarding the UDP checksum?
A. It is used for congestion control.
B. It cannot be all zeros.
C. It is used by some Internet worms to hide their propagation.
D. It is computed based on the IP pseudo-header.
400-101 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The method used to compute the checksum is defined in RFC 768: “Checksum is the 16-bit one’s complement of the one’s complement sum of a pseudo header of information from the IP header, the UDP header, and the data, padded with zero octets at the end (if necessary) to make a multiple of two octets.” In other words, all 16-bit words are summed using one’s complement arithmetic. Add the 16-bit values up. Each time a carry-out (17th bit) is produced, swing that bit around and add it back into the least significant bit. The sum is then one’s complemented to yield the value of the UDP checksum field. If the checksum calculation results in the value zero (all 16 bits 0) it should be sent as the one’s complement (all 1s).
 Question No : 9 – (Topic 1)
Which two Cisco Express Forwarding tables are located in the data plane? (Choose two.)
A. the forwarding information base
B. the label forwarding information base
C. the IP routing table
D. the label information table
E. the adjacency table
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
The control plane runs protocols such as OSPF, BGP, STP, LDP. These protocols are needed so that routers and switches know how to forward packets and frames. The data plane is where the actual forwarding takes place. The data plane is populated based on the protocols running in the control plane. The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) is used for IP traffic and the Label FIB is used for MPLS.
Question No : 10 – (Topic 1) Which two mechanisms can be used to eliminate Cisco Express Forwarding polarization? (Choose two.)
A. alternating cost links
B. the unique-ID/universal-ID algorithm
C. Cisco Express Forwarding antipolarization
D. different hashing inputs at each layer of the network
400-101 pdf Answer: B,D
Explanation:
This document describes how Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF) polarization can cause suboptimal use of redundant paths to a destination network. CEF polarization is the effect when a hash algorithm chooses a particular path and the redundant paths remain completely unused. How to Avoid CEF Polarization Alternate between default (SIP and DIP) and full (SIP + DIP + Layer4 ports) hashing inputs configuration at each layer of the network. Alternate between an even and odd number of ECMP links at each layer of the network.The CEF load-balancing does not depend on how the protocol routes are
inserted in the routing table. Therefore, the OSPF routes exhibit the same behavior as EIGRP. In a hierarchical network where there are several routers that perform load-sharing in a row, they all use same algorithm to load-share. The hash algorithm load-balances this way by default:
1: 1
2: 7-8
3: 1-1-1
4: 1-1-1-2
5: 1-1-1-1-1
6: 1-2-2-2-2-2
7: 1-1-1-1-1-1-1
8: 1-1-1-2-2-2-2-2
The number before the colon represents the number of equal-cost paths. The number after the colon represents the proportion of traffic which is forwarded per path.
This means that:
For two equal cost paths, load-sharing is 46.666%-53.333%, not 50%-50%. For three equal cost paths, load-sharing is 33.33%-33.33%-33.33% (as expected). For four equal cost paths, load-sharing is 20%-20%-20%-40% and not 25%-25%-
25%-25%. This illustrates that, when there is even number of ECMP links, the traffic is not load balanced. Cisco IOS introduced a concept called unique-ID/universal-ID which helps avoid CEF polarization. This algorithm, called the universal algorithm (the default in current Cisco IOS versions), adds a 32-bit router-specific value to the hash function (called the universal ID – this is a randomly generated value at the time of the switch boot up that can can be manually controlled). This seeds the hash function on each router with a unique ID, which ensures that the same source/destination pair hash into a different value on different routers along the path. This process provides a better network-wide load-sharing and circumvents the polarization issue. This unique -ID concept does not work for an even number of equal-cost paths due to a hardware limitation, but it works perfectly for an odd number of equal-cost paths. In order to overcome this problem, Cisco IOS adds one link to the hardware adjacency table when there is an even number of equal cost paths in order to make the system believe that there is an odd number of equal-cost links.
Question No : 11 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)  Drag and drop the argument of the mls ip cef load-sharing command on the left to the function it performs on the right.
400-101 dumps
Question No : 12. Following the installation of the Symposium Express 3.0 server software, what steps must the field engineer take to install PEPs on the Symposium Express server?
A. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, and proceed with the PEP installation.
B. Log on to the NT server as Administrator, shutdown screen savers, and proceed with the PEP installation.
C. Log on to the NT server as NGenSys, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.
D. Log on to the NT server as NGenDist, shutdown all applications, including screen savers and proceed with the PEP installation.
400-101 vce Answer: C
Question No : 13. Before you perform software upgrade from these versions of Symposium Web Client (04.00.037.00 to 04.02.011.04 inclusive) to a version downloaded from the Nortel web site, what must you do?
A. Ensure that Active Directory is installed.
B. Ensure Sybase is installed in the Default directory.
C. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.
D. Download the Microsoft Windows Installer package “CRTEmplates.msi”.
Answer: D
Question No : 14. A field engineer is performing an upgrade from Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 on a PVI platform. The steps to restoring the database have been completed. An error during the database initialization states: “could not create database”. Given that a successful integrity check on the database has been run, what steps should the field engineer perform next?
A. Key the database in by hand.
B. Fdisk and format all hard drives, perform the procedure again from the beginning.
C. Uninstall Symposium Call Center Server, and start the procedure over from that point.
D. Check the platform recovery disk for database segmentation and contact Nortel Networks support if segmentation is found.
400-101 exam Answer: D
Question No : 15. A field engineer at a customer’s site is preparing for a Symposium Call Center Server 1.5 to 4.0 migration. In performing the pre-upgrade checks it is discovered that the disk partitions on the 1.5 server are primary partitions. What action should the field engineer take next?
A. The migration can proceed, making note of the problem. The partitions will be created correctly on the new 4.0 server.
B. Schedule time with the customer to convert the drives from primary to extended partitions using individual full backups for each drive as time allows.
C. Perform a database backup on the 1.5 server. Use Disk Administrator to delete the partitions and re-create them as extended partitions. Perform a database restore.
D. Perform a full backup on the 1.5 server. Fdisk and format the 1.5 server drives. Perform the full restore procedure, ensuring the database drives are partitioned as extended partitions.
Answer:A
Question No : 16. A customer is using Symposium Web Client to manage and configure a call center and its users. Active Directory and other files are used to store user data. When restoring data in the event of a system failure in this scenario, which statement is TRUE regarding where the Active Directory can be restored?
A. Onto a remote directory of a network computer
B. Only onto an application server other than the original server
C. Only onto the same application server where the backup was created
D. Onto the same application server where the backup was created or onto a different application server
400-101 dumps Answer: D
Question No : 17. Once the SMI workbench client software has been successfully installed on the client PC, what are the steps to connect the client PC with the Symposium Call Center Server 4.0?
A. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, enter the clan IP address.
B. Select Start Menu, choose programs, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, click finish.
C. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter the computer name.
D. Select Start Menu, choose programs, SMI workbench, double click add system, the add SMI System dialog box appears, enter computer name or clan IP.
Answer: D
Question No : 18. A customer has decided not to configure DNS service on the Web Client Win 2000 Server. Which files need to be manually updated on the Web Client 4.0 server to replace this functionality?
A. config.sys
B. lmhost table
C. command.com
D. autoexec.bat
400-101 pdf Answer: B
Question No : 19. The field engineer is preparing to use the “import configuration data” wizard to add to the Symposium Express Call Center 3.0 database automatically. What information is brought into the server using the “import configuration data” wizard?
A. User, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
B. User, skillset, agent to supervisor assignment, and call presentation classes.
C. Agent only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
D. Supervisor only users, skillset, agent to skillset assignment, and call presentation classes.
Answer:A
Question No : 20. A field engineer is preparing a new Symposium Call Center Server 4.0 installation. What must be configured to enable the server to communicate with all required components?
A. TCP/IP on the PBX switch
B. TCP/IP on the TAPI Server
C. TCP/IP on the ELAN, CLAN NIC and RAS
D. NetBios on the Symposium Call Center Server
400-101 vce Answer: C
Question No : 21. When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error When upgrading a SECC Client you get an error annot overwrite C:\Nortel\Iccm\En\crp32.dll.?What must be done previous to the upgrade to resolve this issue ?
A. Remove all Client peps and reboot the Server.
B. Make sure that SP5 or SP6a is installed before the upgrade.
C. Ensure Report Listener is closed down before upgrading the client.
D. This error is intermittent and if it occurs it can be cancelled and ignored.
Answer: C

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