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Exam Code: NSE5
Exam Name: Fortinet Network Security Expert 5 Written Exam (500)
Q&As: 239

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QUESTION NO: 24
The third category of guidance ___________ includes a variety of materials that are developed and/or endorsed by The IIA, This category includes research studies, books, seminars, conferences, and other products and services related to the professional practice of internal auditing that do not meet the criteria for inclusion in mandatory guidance or Practice Advisories:
A. Products & services security Advisories
B. Practice Advisories
C. Security Advisories
D. Development and Practice Aids
NSE5 exam 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 25
Which category of Professional Practices Framework can help to implement the guidance offered in the Code of Ethics, Standards, and Practice Advisories and also provide internal audit practitioners with the views of various experts on techniques and processes related to the professional practice of internal auditing?
A. Mandatory Guidance
B. Development and practice aids
C. Practice Advisories
D. Mandatory Guidance, Practice Advisories
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 26
The Professional Practices Framework consists of three categories of guidance which included all
of the following EXCEPT:
A. Mandatory Guidance
B. Development and practice aids
C. Practice Advisories
D. Security Advisories
NSE5 dumps 
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 27
_________ is an independent, objective assurance and consulting activity designed to add value and improve an organization’s operations. It helps an organization accomplish its objectives by bringing a systematic, disciplined approach to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of ________, _________, and governance processes.
A. Internal auditing, risk management, control
B. Internal auditing, risk management, planning
C. Internal auditing, content management, control
D. External auditing, risk management, control
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 28
Which services involve the internal auditor’s objective assessment of evidence to provide an  independent opinion or conclusions regarding a process, system, or other subject matter?
A. Accounting services
B. Auditing services
C. Assurance services
D. Insurance services
NSE5 pdf 
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 29
All of the following are the components of The Professional Practices Framework which was approved by The IIA’s Board of Directors in June 1999 EXCEPT:
A. Definition of Internal Auditing and Standards
B. Mandatory Guidance
C. Code of Ethics (See Section I.D) and Practice Advisories
D. Development and Practice Aids
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 30
Which services are advisory in nature, and are generally performed at the specific request of an engagement client and also the nature and scope of which services are subject to agreement with the engagement client?
A. Auditing services
B. Consulting services
C. Assurance services
D. Accounting services
NSE5 vce 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 31

The Standards consist of Attribute Standards, Performance Standards, and Implementation Standards. The __________ address the characteristics of organizations and parties performing internal audit activities. The _________ describe the nature of internal audit activities and provide quality criteria against which the performance of these services can be evaluated. While the Attribute and Performance Standards apply to all internal audit services, the ________ apply to
specific types of engagements.
A. Implementation Standards, Attribute Standards, Performance Standards
B. Attribute Standards, Implementation Standards, Performance Standards
C. Attribute Standards, Performance Standards, Implementation Standards
D. Performance Standards, Implementation Standards, Attribute Standards
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 32
There is ________ of Attribute and Performance Standards; however, there are _______of Implementation Standards: a set for each of the major types of internal audit activity. The __________ have been established for assurance (A) and consulting (C) activities:
A. One set, multiple sets, Attribution Standards
B. One set, multiple sets, Implementation Standards
C. One set, multiple sets, Performance Standards
D. One set, multiple sets, Multiple Standards
NSE5 exam 
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 33
Assurance services involve the internal auditor’s objective assessment of evidence to provide an independent opinion or conclusions regarding a process, system, or other subject matter. All of the following are the parties generally involved in assurance services EXCEPT:
A. The team leader
B. The person or group making the assessment — the internal auditor
C. The person or group directly involved with the process, system, or other subject matter — the process owner.
D. The person or group using the assessment — the user.
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 34
Consulting services are advisory in nature, and are generally performed at the specific request of an engagement client. The nature and scope of the consulting engagement are subject to agreement with the engagement client. All of the following are the parties generally involved in consulting services EXCEPT:
A. The person or group using the assessment — the user.
B. the person or group offering the advice — the internal auditor
C. The person or group directly involved with the process, system, or other subject matter — the process owner.
D. the person or group seeking and receiving the advice — the engagement client
NSE5 dumps 
Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 35
The development and issuance of the Standards is an ongoing process. Which board engages in extensive consultation and discussion prior to the issuance of the Standards?
A. Advisory board
B. Quasi-Judicial Boards
C. The Internal Auditing Standards Board
D. The external auditing boards
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 36
Although some Practice Advisories may be applicable to all internal auditors, others may be developed to meet the needs of a _______, a __________, or _________, including guidance on topics such as environmental issues, control self assessment, information technology, government auditing, and guidance issued by other standard setting bodies and adopted by ______________.
A. Specific audit specialty, Specific geographic area, Specific industry, committees of The IIA
B. Specific industry, Specific geographic area, committees of The IIA, Specific audit specialty
C. Specific industry, Specific audit specialty, committees of The IIA, Specific geographic area,
D. Specific industry, Specific audit specialty, Specific geographic area, committees of The IIA.
NSE5 pdf 
Answer: D

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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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QUESTION: 52
Patrick visits his teenage daughter’s social media page and discovers several offensive posts about one of her classmates. After speaking with his daughter, Patrick learns that several other girls in her class are upset with the classmate and have been posting, texting and e-mailing others about the girl. What is the best way for Patrick to help his daughter understand cyberbullying?
A. He should advise his daughter to ignore the posts, texts and c-mails.
B. He should explain to his daughter that she is participating in the bullying by accepting others’ posts, texts and c-mails.
C. He should explain to his daughter that the Internet embraces freedom of speech, and anyone is allowed to write anything.
D. He should advise his daughter to delete all the posts, texts and c-mails she has received, as well as any new ones that appear.
210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 53
When you are using stock images in your Web site, a royalty-free license allows you to:
A. use the images without paying a fee for each use.
B. resell or transfer the images without paying a fee.
C. use the images without purchasing a license.
D. assume copyright of the images.
Answer: A
QUESTION: 54
Which type of application allows you to edit and validate your source code and preview your Web pages in multiple browsers?
A. GUI HTML editor
B. HTML text editor
C. Word processor
D. Compiler
210-260 dumps Answer: A
QUESTION: 55
Evonka is listening to music from an online music provider (such as Pandora or Jango). She builds a list of music preferences, including favorite songs. The music service then suggests additional songs she might enjoy. The music
provider is an example of a cloud-computing application that uses a technology for collaborative filtering, which helps define the list of songs available to listeners. Which term describes this technology?
A. Bit-torrent r
B. Crowdsourcing
C. Grid computing
D. Software as a Service
Answer: B
QUESTION: 56
The App-A-Day company offers software applications for various topics. When a customer purchases a desired application from the App-A-Day online store, he is directed to a page where he can download the application directly. When the customer is redirected and begins downloading the application, which specific standard protocol is most likely transferring the application?
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. HTTP
D. SMTP

210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 57
Which of the following is a disadvantage of implementing a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy in a company?
A. Increased cost for licensing mobile applications
B. Configuring the corporate e-mail server to work with mobile devices
C. Inability to control access to company data if the device is stolen or lost
D. Providing training for employees on how to use mobile devices with company applications
Answer: C
QUESTION: 58
When using cloud-based services to host company data, a company’s disaster recovery plan should include strategies for:
A. creating redundancy and ensuring there is an exclusive contract with the cloud service provider.
B. distributing data and software services across multiple cloud service providers.
C. creating redundancy and using multiple cloud service providers.
D. using a single well-established cloud service provider.
210-260 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 59
Marsha’s boss directed her to create a mobile version of the company’s Web site. To ensure her mobile site is optimized, Marsha eliminates banners and advertisements. What other recommendations should Marsha follow?
A. Use images instead of video on the Web site.
B. Use white space to give the site an uncluttered look.
C. Use Flash content to replace lengthy text descriptions.
D. Create several Web sites, each tailored to a specific mobile platform.

210-260 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 60
Which set of standards developed by the W3C Web Accessibility Initiative (WAI) project provides a universal set of standards promoting accessibility for all Web users, including those with disabilities?
A. Web Content Accessibility Guidelines
B. User Agent Accessibility Guidelines
C. W3C Authoring Tool Accessibility Guidelines
D. Section 508 of the Rehabilitation Act
Answer: A
QUESTION: 61
You have just checked the balance in your bank account by logging into your bank’s Web site. Which protocol was most likely used for the transmission of your information?
A. IMAPS
B. HTTPS
C. POP3
D. FTPS
210-260 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 62
You can use the HTML <input>, <select> and <text area> tags to create form fields in a Web page by placing them between the <form> /form> container tags. Which attribute is used with the <input> element to designate the fields that will appear in the form?
A. The type attribute B.
The name attribute C.
The value attribute D.
The action attribute

Answer: A
QUESTION: 63
Which term describes the practice of actively collecting wireless networking data from companies and individuals?
A. War driving
B. Spear phishing
C. Dictionary attack
D. Social engineering
210-260 pdf Answer: A
QUESTION: 64
Your Web browser is currently open and displaying a popular sports site. You decide that you want to browse to the CIW site without closing the browser. What is the most efficient way to accomplish this?
A. By performing a search on your computer for the term “CIW”
B. By performing a search within the site currently displayed in your Web browser
C. By typing in the FTP address (ftp.CIWcertified.com) in the address bar of your Web browser
D. By typing the CIW site’s URL (www.CIWcertified.com) in the address bar of your Web browser
Answer: D
QUESTION: 65
What should be your first step when troubleshooting a network connection that uses a cable modem?
A. Ping the proxy server.
B. Ping the default gateway.
C. Ping local devices using their DNS names.
D. Ping local devices using their IP addresses.

210-260 vce Answer: D

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Exam Code: 300-135
Exam Name: Troubleshooting and Maintaining Cisco IP Networks
Q&As: 118

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QUESTION NO: 55
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?
A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
B. A change that correctly follows the required change process
C. A change that is made as the result of an audit
D. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
300-135 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 56
What is the definition of an Alert?
A. An error message to the user of an application
B. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed
C. A type of Incident
D. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 57
Which of the following would NOT be a task carried out by the Request Fulfillment process?
A. The sourcing and delivering of the components of requested standard services (e.g. licenses
and software media)
B. Provision of a channel for users to request and receive standard services for which a pre
defined approval and qualification process exists
C. Provision of information used to compare actual performance against design standards
D. Provision of information to users and customers about the availability of services and the
procedure for obtaining them
300-135 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 58
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
B. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
C. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 59
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?
A. Data
B. Wisdom
C. Information
D. Knowledge
300-135 pdf Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 60
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?
A. It is measurable
B. Delivers specific results
C. A method of structuring an organization
D. Responds to specific events
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 61
Which role would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of Underpinning
Contracts?
A. IT Designer/Architect
B. Process Manager
C. Service Catalogue Manager
D. Supplier Manager
300-135 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 62
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue
B. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service
Portfolio
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
D. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 63
The difference between service metrics and technology metrics is BEST described as?
A. Service metrics measure the end to end service; Technology metrics measure individual
components
B. Service metrics measure maturity and cost; Technology metrics measure efficiency and
effectiveness
C. Service metrics include critical success factors and Key Performance Indicators; Technology
metrics include availability and capacity
D. Service metrics measure each of the service management processes; Technology metrics
measure the infrastructure

300-135 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 64
The term ‘Service Management’ is best used to describe?
A. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities
B. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of
services
C. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activities
D. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing functions to customers in the form
of services
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following is the BEST definition of an Incident?
A. A warning that a threshold has been reached, something has changed, or a failure has
occurred
B. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
C. A change of state which has significance for the management of a Configuration Item or IT
Service
D. Loss of ability to operate to specification, or to deliver the required output
300-135 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 66
Who is responsible for ensuring that the Request Fulfillment process is being performed according
to the agreed and documented process?
A. The Request Fulfillment Process Manager
B. The Request Fulfillment Process Owner
C. The Service Desk Manager
D. The Service Manager
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 67
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?
A. IT Service Continuity Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Service Catalogue Management
D. Capacity Management
300-135 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 68
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
A. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
B. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
C. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 69
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called
the?
A. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)
300-135 vce Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 70
What is a RACI model used for?
A. Performance analysis
B. Recording Configuration Items
C. Defining roles and responsibilities
D. Monitoring services
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 71
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?
A. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business
objectives
B. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
C. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
D. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the
objective of achieving Best Practice”
300-135 exam Answer: D

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Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration
Q&As: 166

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QUESTION 8
Which statement is true about the Log Writer process?
A. It writes when it receives a signal from the checkpoint process (CKPT).
B. It writes concurrently to all members of multiplexed redo log groups.
C. It writes after the Database Writer process writes dirty buffers to disk.
D. It writes when a user commits a transaction.
1Z0-062 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 9
The ORCL database is configured to support shared server mode. You want to ensure that a user
connecting remotely to the database instance has a one-to-one ratio between client and server processes.
Which connection method guarantees that this requirement is met?
A. connecting by using an external naming method
B. connecting by using the easy connect method
C. creating a service in the database by using the dbms_service.create_service procedure and using this
service for creating a local naming service”
D. connecting by using the local naming method with the server = dedicated parameter set in the
tnsnames.ora file for the net service
E. connecting by using a directory naming method
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 10
Which two tasks can be performed on an external table?
A. partitioning the table
B. creating an invisible index
C. updating the table by using an update statement
D. creating a public synonym

E. creating a view
1Z0-062 dumps Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 11
Which three statements are true about a job chain?
A. It can contain a nested chain of jobs.
B. It can be used to implement dependency-based scheduling.
C. It cannot invoke the same program or nested chain in multiple steps in the chain.
D. It cannot have more than one dependency.
E. It can be executed using event-based or time-based schedules.
Correct Answer: ABE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Reference:
QUESTION 12
The hr user receiver, the following error while inserting data into the sales table:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-01653; unable to extend table HR.SALES by 128 in tablespace USERS
On investigation, you find that the users tablespace uses Automnrif Segment Space Management (ASSM).
It is the default tablespace for the HR user with an unlimited quota on it.
Which two methods would you use to resolve this error?
A. Altering the data life associated with the USERS tablespace to ex automatically
B. Adding a data life to the USERS tablespace
C. Changing segment space management for the USERS tablespace to manual
D. Creating a new tablespace with autoextend enabled and changing the default tablespace of the HR
user to the new tablespace
E. Enabling resumable space allocation by setting the RESUMABLE_TIMEOUT parameter to a nonzero
value
1Z0-062 pdf Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 13
Which three factors influence the optimizer’s choice of an execution plan?
A. the optimizer_mode initialization parameter
B. operating system (OS) statistics
C. cardinality estimates
D. object statistics in the data dictionary
E. fixed baselines
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 14
Examine the resources consumed by a database instance whose current Resource Manager plan is
displayed.
SQL> SELECT name, active_sessions, queue_length,
Consumed_cpu_time, cpu_waits, cpu_wait_time
FROM v$rsrc_consumer_group;
NAME ACTIVE_SESSIONS QUEUE_LENGTH CONSUMED_CPU_WAITS
CPU_WAIT_TIME
———————————– ——————– ——————– ——————— —————-
OLTP__ORDER__ENTRY 1 0 29690 467
6709
OTHES__GROUPS 0 0 5982366 4089
60425
SYS_GROUP 1 0 2420704 914
19540
DS.S_QUERIES 4 2 4594660 3004
55700
Which two statements are true?
A. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to DSS_QUERIES fails with an error.
B. An attempt to start a new session by a user belonging to OTHE_GROUPS fails with an error.
C. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to resource management.
D. The CPU_WAIT_TIME column indicates the total time that sessions in the consumer group waited for
the CPU due to I/O waits and latch or enqueue contention.
E. A user belonging to the DSS__QUERIES resource consumer group can create a new session but the
session will be queued.
1Z0-062 vce Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 15
Which action takes place when a file checkpoint occurs?
A. The checkpoint position is advanced in the checkpoint queue.
B. All buffers for a checkpointed file that were modified before a specific SCN are written to disk by DBWn
and the SCN is stored in the control file.
C. The Database Writer process (DBWn) writes all dirty buffers in the buffer cache to data files.
D. The Log Writer process (LGWR) writes all redo entries in the log buffer to online redo log files.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 16
Examine the structure of the sales table, which is stored in a locally managed tablespace with Automatic
Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.

Name Null? Type
——————————————– ————————————- —————————–
PROD_ID NOT NULL NUMBER
CUST_ID NOT NULL NUMBER
TIME_ID NOT NULL DATE
CHANNEL_ID NOT NULL NUMBER
PROMO_ID NOT NULL NUMBER
QUANT I TY___S OL D NOT NULL NUMBER (10, 2)
AMOUNT SOLD NOT NULL NUMBER (10, 2)
You want to perform online segment shrink to reclaim fragmented free space below the high water mark.
A. Row movement is enabled.
B. Referential integrity constraints for the table are disabled.
C. No queries are running on this table.
D. Extra disk space equivalent to the size of the segment is available in the tablespace.
E. No pending transaction exists on the table.
1Z0-062 exam Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 17
Which task would you recommend before using the Database Upgrade Assistant (DBUA) to upgrade a
single-instance Oracle 11g R2 database to Oracle Database 12c?
A. shutting down the database instance that is being upgraded
B. executing the catctl.pl script to run the upgrade processes in parallel
C. running the Pre-Upgrade Information Tool
D. copying the listener.ora file to the new ORACLE_HOME
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
Your database is open and the listener LISTNENER is up. You 1Z0-062 dumps issue the command:
LSNRCTL> RELOAD
What is the effect of reload on sessions that were originally established by listener?
A. Only sessions based on static listener registrations are disconnected.
B. Existing connections are not disconnected; however, they cannot perform any operations until the
listener completes the re-registration of the database instance and service handlers.
C. The sessions are not affected and continue to function normally.
D. All the sessions are terminated and active transactions are rolled back.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 19
Which statement is true regarding the startup of a database instance?
A. The instance does not start up normally and requires manual media recovery after a shutdown using
the abort option.
B. Uncommitted transactions are rolled back during the startup of the database instance after a shutdown
using the immediate option.
C. There is no difference in the underlying mechanics of the startup whether the database is shut down by
using the immediate option or the abort option.
D. Media recovery is required when the database is shut down by using either the immediate option or the
abort option.
E. Instance recovery is not required if the database instance was shut down by using SHUTDOWN
IMMEDIATE.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

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Exam Code: 70-740
Exam Name: Installation, Storage, and Compute with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 162

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Question: 14
The JHG Company has used discriminatory hiring practices in the past but they adjusted their
practices and are following federal laws now to ensure that fair hiring practices are met. However,
the JHG Company has an employee referral program as a primary source to recruit new employees.
What danger may the JHG Company be exposed to in this scenario?
A. Perpetuating past unintentional practices
B. Perpetuating past discrimination practices
C. Succumbing to an adverse impact
D. Not finding qualified racially diverse candidates
70-740 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
This is an example of how past discriminatory practices can perpetuate themselves in the
organization, by using the current pool of employees to bring new applicants. Past discriminatory
practices that created the current pool of employees can cause the current pool to refer similar
candidates to the company.
Answer option D is incorrect. While this choice is tempting the question doesn’t reveal what the
discriminatory practices were in the past. The discriminatory practices could have been race, sex,
religion, or a host of other discrimination.
Answer option A is incorrect. The question doesn’t reveal if the past practices were intentional or
not, and the current situation could and could not be unintentional. The best answer, however, is
that this scenario perpetuates past discrimination practices.
Answer option C is incorrect. An adverse impact is the overall effect of a disparate action. While this
answer is tempting, it’s not the best choice for the question.
Question: 15
You are a HR Professional for your organization and you’re preparing your team for a series of
interviews. You want the team to be familiar with the validity types you’ll use and encourage in the
series of interviews. One of the requirements in the interview process for a graphic designer is, for
the graphic designer to use a software program and to create a simple brochure. This is an example
of what type of validity?
A. Construct-related validity
B. Predictive validity
C. Criterion-related validity
D. Content validity
70-740 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
The selection criterion for the graphic designer to use the software program and create a brochure is
indicative of the type of work the graphic designer should be able to do in the job. This is an example
of content validity for the applicant.
Answer option C is incorrect. Criterion-related validity is an example where performance scores
achieved by current employees are based on the criterion used for the selection. For example,
current employees can perform better because they can design artwork in particular software
programs, so applicants must be able to use the particular software program to qualify for the
position.
Answer option A is incorrect. Construct-related validity measures certain psychological tests to
determine whether the applicant possesses the desired characteristics to operate successfully in the
position.
Answer option B is incorrect. Predictive-validity is a confirmation of characteristics the candidate is
tested for during the interview process, hold true in the actual performance of the candidate once
they’ve been hired.
Question: 16
The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 prohibits employers from discriminating against
employees on the basis of pregnancy, child birth, or other related medical conditions. This law
affects organizations having what minimum number of employees?
A. All organizations with employees must abide by this law
B. Organizations with 100 or more employees
C. Organizations with 15 or more employees
D. This law only addresses federal government employees
70-740 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
This law addresses all organizations that have 15 or more employees.
Answer option A is incorrect. Organizations with fewer than 15 employees are exempted from this
law.
Answer option B is incorrect. The law requires organizations with 15 or more employees to conform
to the regulation.
Answer option D is incorrect. This law applies to all organizations with 15 or more employees, not
just the federal government.

Question: 17
The GHF Corporation is looking to hire four software developers. The average pay for software
developers, with the desired skill set, is $76,000. The GHF Corporation believes that by offering
$80,000 for the starting salary they’ll attract better performers than their competitors. What is this
scenario an example of?
A. Lagging the market
B. Leading the market
C. Matching the market
D. Beating the market
70-740 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
When an organization wants to pay more than the market norm, they are considered to be leading
the market.
Answer option A is incorrect. Lagging the market means an organization is paying less than the
market norms.
Answer option C is incorrect. Matching the market means the company is paying the standard
market rate.
Answer option D is incorrect. Beating the market isn’t an appropriate terminology for this scenario.
Question: 18
You are an HR Professional for your organization. Your organization employs 120 people in the
United States. You are required to file the EEO-1 report for your organization by what date?
A. April 15 of each year
B. The anniversary date of your organization reaching 100 employees
C. January 1 of each year
D. September 30 of each year
70-740 exam Answer: D
Explanation:
The EEO-1 Report, known as the Employer Information Report, must be submitted to the
Department of Labor’s Office by September 30 of each year for employers with 100 or more
employees.
Answer option C is incorrect. January 1 is not a valid answer.
Answer option A is incorrect. April 15 is the tax filing deadline.
Answer option B is incorrect. All organizations with 100 or more employees must file the EEO-1
report by September 30, not the anniversary date of your organization reaching 100 employees.

Question: 19
As an HR Professional, you are required to post an OSHA poster in a conspicuous place that is easily
visible to employees. What OSHA poster lists each of the employee’s rights?
A. OSHA 3165 poster
B. OSHA 5613 poster
C. OSHA 5131 poster
D. OSHA 3615 poster
70-740 dumps Answer: A
Explanation:
The OSHA poster with the employee’s rights is OSHA poster 3165.
Answer options D, C, and B are incorrect. The OSHA poster with the employee’s rights is OSHA
poster 3165.
Question: 20
Question: Consider your role as a HR Professional in your organization. In your duties you’re to keep
abreast of market trends, practices in HR, employee attitudes, and your business needs. What
component of the HR Impact Model is addressed in this situation?
A. Programs and processes
B. Policies and procedures
C. Catalyst
D. Consultation
Answer: C
Explanation:
The HR Professional in this role of the catalyst is involved in the HR practices, trends, business needs,
and understands the company’s culture and employee attitudes. Answer option D is incorrect. The
consultation role helps to define the overall organizational strategy.
Answer option B is incorrect. The policies and procedures role establishes and controls the HR
processes, employee programs, and ensures fair treatment for employees.
Answer option A is incorrect. The programs and processes role oversees programs to attract and
motivate employees, and promotes employee satisfaction and performance.

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Exam Code: 70-741
Exam Name: Networking with Windows Server 2016
Q&As: 48

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3.LIMITATION OF LIABILITY
IN NO EVENT SHALL RSA, THE SECURITY DIVISION OF EMC BE LIABLE FOR ANY DIRECT,
CONSEQUENTIAL, INCIDENTAL, OR SPECIAL DAMAGES (INCLUDING BUT NOT LIMITED TO
LOSS OF BUSINESS PROFITS) ARISING FROM OR RELATED TO YOUR CERTIFICATION,
FAILURE TO ACHIEVE CERTIFICATION, OR USE OF OR INABILITY TO USE THE RSA
CERTIFIED SECURITY PROFESSIONAL LOGO OR DESIGNATIONS, OR ARISING FROM OR
RELATED TO THE TERMINATION OF YOUR CERTIFICATION, EVEN IF RSA, THE SECURITY
DIVISION OF EMC HAS BEEN ADVISED OF THE POSSIBILITY OF SUCH DAMAGES. BECAUSE
SOME STATES DO NOT ALLOW THE EXCLUSION OR LIMITATION OF LIABILITY FOR
CONSEQUENTIAL OR INCIDENTAL DAMAGES, THE ABOVE LIMITATION MAY NOT APPLY TO
YOU.

4.INDEMNIFICATION
You agree to indemnify and hold RSA, The Security Division of EMC harmless against any loss,
liability, damage, cost or expense (including reasonable legal fees) arising out of:
width
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Your use of the RSA Certified Security Professional Logo and/or the RSA Certified Security

Professional designation(s) in a manner which is in any way inconsistent with the terms of the RSA
Certified Security Professional Agreement;
width
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By reason of Your performance or non-performance as a RSA Certified Security Professional; or
width
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RSA Security’s termination of the RSA Certified Security Professional 70-741 exam Agreement.
In the event RSA, The Security Division of EMC seeks indemnification from You under this Section,
RSA will immediately notify You in writing of any claim or proceeding brought against it for which it
seeks indemnification. In no event may You enter into any third-party agreements that would, in any
manner whatsoever, affect the rights of, or bind, RSA, The Security Division of EMC in any manner,
without the prior written consent of RSA, The Security Division of EMC.

5. REPRESENTATIONS
All certified security professionals who are certified under the RSA Certified Security Professional
Program recognize that such certification is a privilege that must be both earned and maintained. In
support of this, You represent that all business You conduct in Your capacity as an RSA Certified
Security Professional, and all services You provide concerning RSA’s products, shall be performed in
a manner that:
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Does not, in any way, harm RSA’s reputation;
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Avoids deceptive, misleading, or unethical practices; width
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Avoids making any representations, warranties, or guarantees to customers on behalf of RSA 70-741 dumps, The
Security Division of EMC for RSA’s products or otherwise;
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Complies with all applicable U.S. export regulations and other applicable governmental laws and
regulations; and
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Complies with copyright and other intellectual property and proprietary rights protections for RSA’s
products.
6. NON-DISCLOSURE AGREEMENT
You expressly undertake to retain, in confidence, all information and know-how transmitted to You by
RSA, The Security Division of EMC that RSA has identified as being proprietary and/or confidential or
that, by the nature of the circumstances surrounding its disclosure, ought in good faith to be treated as
proprietary and/or confidential, and You will make no use of such information and know-how except
under the terms and during the existence of the Non-Disclosure Agreement.
You expressly acknowledge that the RSA Certified Security Professional certification test questions
and materials are subject to these confidentiality and non-disclosure obligations, and may not be
disclosed to or discussed with others, or posted 70-741 pdf or published in any forum or through any medium.
Notwithstanding the foregoing, You shall have no obligation to maintain the confidentiality of
information that:
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Has become generally available to the public through no wrongful act on Your part;
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Has been independently developed; or
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Is known to be free of restrictions.
Further, You may disclose confidential information as required by governmental or judicial order,
provided You give RSA prompt written notice prior to such disclosure, and comply with any protective
order (or equivalent) imposed on such disclosure.
Your obligation under this Section shall survive the expiration or termination of the RSA Certified
Security Professional Agreement and continue after any termination of said Agreement.
7. TERMINATION
Termination By Either Party:
width

Either party may terminate the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement at any time, with or
without cause.
Immediate Termination By RSA:
width
Without prejudice to any rights RSA, The Security Division of EMC may have under the RSA Certified
Security Professional Agreement or in law, equity, or otherwise, and in addition to its rights outlined in
the previous paragraph, RSA, The Security Division of EMC 70-741 vce may terminate the RSA Certified Security
Professional Agreement immediately, including termination of any certifications and RSA Certified
Security Professional designations to which the Agreement relates, and termination of Your use of the
corresponding RSA Certified Security Professional Logo, upon the occurrence of any one of the
following events (the “Defaults”):
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You fail to comply with the applicable continuing certification requirements for such certification; width
You otherwise fail to comply with any of the terms of the RSA Certified Security Professional
Agreement, including, without limitation, the terms governing the use of the RSA Certified Security
Professional designations and Logo;
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You engage in misappropriation or unauthorized disclosure of any trade secret or confidential
information of RSA (including, but not limited to, any RSA Certified Security Professional certification
test materials or other RSA materials with respect to which You are under non-disclosure 70-741 exam obligation),
or pirate any RSA’s product, or otherwise infringe any other intellectual property right of RSA, or
engage in any other activities prohibited by law; or
width
A government agency or court finds that services You provided concerning RSA’s products, to which
Your certification relates, are defective in any way.
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In the event any Default occurs, RSA, The Security Division of EMC will provide You with written
notice of termination of the 70-741 dumps RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement.
Obligations Upon Termination
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From and after termination of the RSA Certified Security Professional Agreement, You shall
immediately cease all use of any RSA Certified Security Professional designation and Logo to which
the Agreement relates.

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Exam Code: 70-742
Exam Name: Identity with Windows Server 2016
Updated: Sep 05, 2017
Q&As: 65

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QUESTION 8
Quality control circles are now used all over the world. The circles typically consist of a group of five to ten employees who meet regularly. The primary goal of
these circles is to:
A. Improve the quality of leadership in the organization.
B. Tap the creative problem-solving potential of every employee.
C. Improve communications between employees and managers by providing a formal communication channel
D. Allow for the emergence of team leaders who can be targeted for further leadership development.
Correct Answer: B
70-742 exam Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quality control circles are used to obtain voluntary input from employees to promote problem solving. Potential benefits include lower costs, better employer
employee relations, and greater employee commitment.
QUESTION 9
A company with many branch stores has decided to use its best-performing store as a benchmark organization for the purpose of analyzing the accuracy and
reliability of branch store financial reporting.
Which one of the following is the most likely measure to be included in a financial benchmark?
A. High turnover of employees.
B. High level of employee participation in setting budgets.
C. High amount of bad debt write-offs.
D. High number of suppliers.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internal benchmarking is the application of best practices in one part of the organization (e.g., a high- performing branch store) to its other parts (other branches).
This process requires, among other things, use of quantitative and qualitative measures. A key indicator for financial performance measurement is the amount of
bad debt write-offs. A high level of bad debt write-offs could indicate fraud, which would compromise the accuracy and reliability of financial reports. Bad debt
write-offs may result from recording fictitious sales.
QUESTION 10
The management and employees of a large household goods moving company believe that it if became nationally known as adhering to total quality management
and continuous improvement, one result would be an increase in the company’s profits and market share. What should the company focus onto achieve quality
more economically?
A. Appraisal costs.
B. Prevention costs.

C. Internal failure costs.
D. External failure costs.
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Prevention is ordinarily less costly than the combined costs of appraisal, internal failure, and external failure.
QUESTION 11
The cost of scrap, rework, and tooling changes in a product quality cost system is categorized as a (n):
A. Training cost.
B. External failure cost.
C. Internal failure cost.
D. Prevention cost.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internal failure costs are incurred when detection of defective products occurs before shipment. Examples of internal failure costs are scrap, rework, tooling
changes, and downtime.
QUESTION 12
The four categories of costs associated with product quality costs are:
A. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and carrying.
B. External failure, internal failure, prevention, and appraisal.
C. External failure, internal failure, training, and appraisal.
D. Warranty, product liability, training, and appraisal.
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Appraisal costs are incurred to detect defective output during and after the production process. Internal failure
costs are associated with defective output discovered before shipping. External failure costs are associated with defective output discovered after it has reached
the customer.
QUESTION 13
Which of the following costs of quality is a failure cost?
A. Systems development costs.
B. Costs of inspecting in-process items.
C. Contract penalty for delivery of nonconforming goods.
D. Costs of quality circles.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Failure costs are incurred after defective output has been removed from production. A contract penalty for faulty goods is an example of an external failure cost.
QUESTION 14
Listed below are costs of quality that a manufacturing company has incurred throughout its operations.
The U.S. dollar amount of the costs of quality classified as prevention costs for the manufacturing firm would be:
A. US$643,000
B. US$701,000
C. US$736,000
D. US$768,000
70-742 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects. Examples are the costs of employee training, review of equipment design, preventive maintenance, and
evaluation of suppliers. Accordingly, the prevention costs equal US $701,000 ($275,000 design reviews + $180,000 process engineering + $90,000 scheduled
maintenance + $156,000 training).
QUESTION 15
The costs of quality that are incurred in detecting units of product that do not conform to product specifications are referred to as:
A. Prevention costs.
B. Appraisal costs.
C. Rework costs.
D. Failure costs.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Appraisal activities include inspection and testing. Appraisal costs (such as test equipment maintenance and destructive testing) are incurred to detect products
not conforming to specifications.
QUESTION 16
Listed below are selected line items from the cost-of-quality report for Company B for last month Category:
What is Company B’s total prevention and appraisal cost for last month?
A. US$786
B. US$1,154
C. US$1,940
D. US$2,665
70-742 exam Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer (C) is correct. Prevention costs are incurred to prevent defects from occurring. An example is equipment maintenance. Appraisal costs are incurred to
detect defective output during and after the production process. An example is product testing. Thus, total prevention and appraisal cost for the month equals US
$1,940 (US$1,154 + US $786).

QUESTION 17
All of the following are generally included in a cost-of-quality report except:
A. Warranty claims.
B. Design engineering.
C. Supplier evaluations.
D. Lost contribution margin.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A cost-of-quality report includes most costs related to quality, specifically the costs of prevention, appraisal, internal failure, and external failure.
QUESTION 18
In Year 2, a manufacturing company instituted a total quality management (TQM) program producing the following report:
On the basis of this report, which one of the following statements is most likely true?
A. An increase in prevention and appraisal costs resulted in a higher quality product and therefore resulted in a decrease in failure costs.
B. An increase in inspection costs was solely responsible for the decrease in quality costs.
C. Quality costs, such as scrap and rework, decreased by 48%.
D. Quality costs, such as returns and repairs under warranty, decreased by 40%.
70-742 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Answer (A) is correct. Prevention and appraisal costs increased substantially, but internal and external failure costs decreased. Thus, the soundest conclusion is
that the increase in prevention and appraisal costs resulted in a higher-quality product.
QUESTION 19
Quality cost indices are often used to measure and analyze the cost of maintaining a given level of quality. One example of a quality cost index, which uses a
direct labor base, is computed as:

Based upon these cost data, the quality cost index:
A. Decreased four points from May to June.
B. Was unchanged from May to June.
C. Increased 10 points from May to June.
D. Decreased 10 points from May to June.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The index for May was 40 [(US $4,000 + $6,000 + $12,000 + $14,000) + $90,000], and the index for June was 36 [(US $5,000 + $5,000 + $15,000 + $11.000) +
$100,000].
Answer:
QUESTION 20
Quality cost indices are often used to measure and analyze the cost of maintaining or improving the level of quality. Such indices are computed by dividing the
total cost of quality over a given period by some measure of activity during that period (for example, sales dollars). The following cost data are available for a

company for the month of March. The company’s quality cost index is calculated using total cost of quality divided by sales dollars.
The quality cost index for March is:
A. 7.5
B. 6.5
C. 22.0
D. 5.9
70-742 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The total cost of quality equals the sum of prevention costs (quality planning), appraisal costs (inspection and testing), internal failure costs (scrap and rework),
and external failure costs (customer complaints and returns), or US $30,000 ($2,800 + $6,400 + $16,800 + $4,000). Thus, the quality cost index for March is 7.5
[(US $30,000 – US $400,000) x 100].
QUESTION 21
Quality costing is similar in service and manufacturing organizations. Nevertheless, the differences between these organizations have certain implications for
quality management. Thus,
A. Direct labor costs are usually a higher percentage of total costs in manufacturing organizations.
B. External failure costs are relatively greater in service organizations.
C. Quality improvements resulting in more efficient use of labor time are more likely to be accepted by employees in service organizations.
D. Poor service is less likely to result in loss of customers than a faulty product.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
External failure costs arise when problems occur after delivery. They occur because products or services are nonconforming or otherwise do not satisfy customers. External failure costs in service enterprises are even more important than in manufacturing environments. Faulty goods sometimes maybe reworked or replaced to a customer’s satisfaction, but poor service tends to result in a loss of customers.

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Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks
Updated: Aug 24, 2017
Q&As: 60

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DEMO
QUESTION 1
Which Cisco WLC debug command allows you to determine if the certificate process is failing in the
CAPWAP messages?
A. debug pm pki enable
B. debug cert events enable
C. debug capwap events enable
D. debug capwap packet enable
E. debug capwap errors enable
300-370 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2
Employees upgraded company issued OS devices. Which are configured to authenticate to the network
using WPA2- Eniefpnse 802 lx with LEAP As a result, the devices are no longer able to authenticate.
Which action must the engineer do 10 resolve the issue?
Refer to the exhibit.

300-370 dumps

A. Redeploy the existing configuration profile.
B. Change LEAP certificate on the ACS server.
C. Reset the network settings on the devices.
D. Rejoin the enterprise network manually.
E. Deploy a new configuration profile with LEAP enabled
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3
An engineer has configured 802 1x for the network and all but one of the APs are passing authentication.
Which configurationiscausing the failure?
A. The AP has override global credentials checked.
B. The switch AAA credentials do not match what is configured on ISE.
C. The controller 802 1x supplicant credentials do not match what is configured on ISE
D. EAP-FAST is configured on ISE for this AP.

300-370 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
An AP will be deployed to an area where DHCP Option 43 is unavailable and the WLAN engineer is unable
to have DNS modifications made to support this AP. Which two actions can enable the AP to join the
WLC? (Choose two)
A. Issue the clear capwap private-config command in the AP console.
B. Pre-stage or prime the AP on the same Layer 2 VLAN as the WLC.
C. Issue the capwap ap ip default-gateway WLC IP address command in the AP console.
D. Issue the capwap ap ip address WLC IP address command in the AP console.
E. Issue the capwap ap controller ip address WLC IP address command in the AP console.
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5
A Wireless LAN Cisco engineer is troubleshooting 802. 11ac WLAN at customer site Doe to interferences
with neighboring 802 11n networks the engineer must determine the current primary secondary channel
allocation to enhance the current configuration. Channel 60 has been chosen by the customer as primary
20 MHz channel.
Which combination determines the resulting primary 40 MHz and primary 80 MHZ channels?
A. primary 40 MHz channel 62, primary 80 MM: channel 58
B. primary 40 MHz channel 54, primary 80 MHz channel 58
C. primary 40 MHz channel 64, primary 80 MHz channel 60
D. primary 40 MHz channel 60, primary 80 MHz channel 56
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
An engineer has received an alarm on a wireless LAN controller and is unsure of its meaning. The
engineer attempted to ping the wireless LAN controller interfaces.
Which troubleshooting methodology does this action demonstrate?
A. bottom-up
B. follow the path
C. shoot from the hip
D. top-down
E. divide and conquer
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 7
Which three steps would a network engineer use to troubleshoot an AP join problem? (Choose three.)
A. Validate the STP configuration.
B. Verify the ping AP from the controller.
C. Verify the ping AP from the client.
D. Verify that the AP is getting an address from the DHCP server.
E. I Validate the SNMP configuration.
F. Verify the authentication configuration parameters.
300-370 vce Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 8
A wireless engineer has completed the configuration of a new WLAN on the existing Cisco wireless
infrastructure. During testing he found that the wireless client’s authenticate and received the correct ip
address from the switch, but they were not able to access any of the internal or external resources. Which

action will resolve the issue?
A. Configure static ip addresses for the wireless clients.
B. Configure the default-router on the switch DHCP pool.
C. Configure option 82 on the switch DHCP pool.
D. Configure a dns-server on the switch DHCP pool.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which statement about the usage of the debug command in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network is true?
A. Debug is enabled until manual shut off.
B. Debug is a message logging severity 7.
C. Debug is a restricted command and is not available in the AP CLI.
D. Debug is available on the WLC serial console and web interface.
300-370 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 10
A client is failing EAP authentication and a debug shows that the server is sending an Access-Reject
message. Which action must you take to resolve authentication?
A. Verify that the Validate server certificate on the client is disabled.
B. Verify that the client certificates are from the proper CA and server certificate.
C. Verify that the client server certificate has the proper Windows OlDs.
D. Verify that the user account is the same in the client certificate.
E. Verify that the user is using the same password that is on the server
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11
A WLC receives a coverage hole detection alert from an AP. What two conditions must occur for the
controller to dynamically mitigate the situation? (Choose two.)
A. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level 2 or lower.
B. The client must be able to dynamically raise its power level to match the new AP power.
C. The AP must be RF visible to additional APs on the other side of the coverage hole for calibration.
D. The client must have WMM-PS disabled to allow for the increased power usage.
E. The AP serving the troubled client must currently have a power level higher than 2.
300-370 dumps Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.
300-370 dumps

A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed.
B. The AP successfully joined the controller.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller.
E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the
management interface subnet.
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 13
Some users are experiencing inconsistent performance on their mobile devices as they move throughout
the building when browsing the Internet.
Which feature provides a more consistent user experiences?
A. low RSSI check
B. 802.11r
C. RX-SOP
D. optimized roaming
300-370 pdf Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-487
Exam Name: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
Updated: Aug 27, 2017
Q&As: 113

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1.Which method can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report?
A.Select the Field option from the Insert menu.
B.Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the
Context menu.
C.Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
D.Click the Field button on the Formatting toolbar.
70-487 exam Answer:C
2.You need a report that shows all customers and allows the report reader to view either a report listing all
days in the month to date or to view only the customers with daily sales greater than $5000. You decide to
use report alerts to accomplish this. Which formula properly sets the alert condition?
A.Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, “daily”) > 5000
B.Sum ({Orders.Order Date}, {Orders.Order Amount}, “daily”) > 5000}
C.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, “daily”) > 5000 THEN crCondition = “Enabled”
D.IF Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, “daily”) > 5000 THEN AlertMessage = “Enabled”
Answer:A
3.Which two formulas can you use to determine whether the content of a string is a number? (Choose
two.)
A.IsNumber({Orders.Customer ID})
B.NumberText({Orders.Customer ID})
C.IsNumeric({Orders.Customer ID})
D.NumericText({Orders.Customer ID})
70-487 dumps Answer:C D
4.In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which two menu options become
available when you right-click one of the selected objects? (Choose two.)
A.Move
B.Insert
C.Delete
D.Copy
E.Cut
Answer:D E
5.You want to see a list of formulas containing references to a specific field. Which method can you use?
A.Browse Field
B.Repository Explorer
C.Formula Field Search
D.Global Formula Search
70-487 pdf Answer:D
6.You copy a report from BusinessObjects Enterprise and modify the report. Which two methods can you
use to save changes back to BusinessObjects Enterprise? (Choose two.)
A.Save the report using the Report Explorer.
B.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Enterprise.
C.From the Main menu, select Save and choose Web Folders.
D.Save the report using the Repository Explorer.
Answer:B D
7.Which two methods can you use to change the appearance of an object that you add to a Crystal report?
(Choose two.)
A.Hold down CTRL + Spacebar and click on the object.
B.Right-click the object and use the Format Editor.
C.Select the object and use the Formatting toolbar.
D.Drag-and-drop the object to the Formatting toolbar.
70-487 vce Answer:B C
8.What two configuration options are valid for long Lists of Values (LOV) in Crystal Reports 2008?
(Choose two.)
A.UI Batch Size B.Database
Timeout C.Maximum LOV
Size D.Maximum Rowset
Records
Answer:A C
9.Which two statements describe how optional prompts behave in Crystal Reports 2008? (Choose two.)
A.If no value is entered in the prompt, all values are returned.
B.If no value is entered in the prompt, no values are returned.
C.If the parent prompt is optional, the child prompt must be optional.
D.If the child prompt is optional, the parent prompt must be optional.
70-487 exam Answer:A C
10.Which formula uses the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Crystal syntax?
A.Numbervar x; x = 5;
B.Dim x as Number x = 5
C.Dim x as Number x := 5
D.Numbervar x; x := 5;
Answer:D
11.You create a new Crystal report and want to add a Top N sort, but the Group Sort Expert is inactive.
How can you activate the Group Sort Expert?
A.Insert a group name field.
B.Insert a summary field.
C.Insert a running total field.
D.Insert a formula field.
70-487 dumps Answer:B
12.You must create a static array in a Crystal report to be used for numeric calculations in other formulas.
How can you do this?
A.Global NumberVar Array newArray := Array (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
B.Global NumberVar Array newArray := MakeArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
C.Global NumberVar Array newArray := CreateArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
D.Global NumberVar Array newArray := DefineArray (1, 2, 3, 4, 5);
Answer:B
13.When should you use parameters?
A.When creating conditional Top N reports.
B.When identifying the data source location.
C.When identifying trends in data.
D.When creating dynamic groups.

70-487 pdf Answer:D
14.Which special field can you use to display the date a report was last changed?
A.Modification Date
B.Modification LastDate
C.Modification LastUpdate
D.Modification Time
Answer:A
15.You are creating a Crystal report to show just the Top N countries in an international sales report based
on total sales for the previous quarter. The value of N is dynamic. Which method must you use to achieve
the required result?
A.Using the Group Select Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Add a conditional formula to
view just the Top N countries.
B.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, reference that parameter within the Group Sort Expert.
Refresh the report setting the value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
C.Using the Group Sort Expert, create a parameter to set the value of N. Refresh the report setting the
value of N in the parameter to show just the Top N countries.
D.After creating a parameter to set the value of N, refresh the report to view just those countries with a
grand total that is greater than N.
70-487 vce Answer:B
16.Which three lines of code will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A.Local Number x := 1;
B.Local NumberVal x := 1;
C.Local NumberVar x := 1;
D.Local NumberValue x := 1;
Answer:A B D
17.You want to use the Workbench feature to manage multiple reports and publish them to
BusinessObjects Enterprise as object packages. Your manager is concerned that any Crystal user could
access and make changes to the reports located on the Workbench. How can you address your
manager’s concerns?
A.Encrypt object packages.
B.Password protect object packages.
C.Assign appropriate permissions to object packages that are published to BusinessObjects Enterprise.
D.Track changes on object packages using the Dependency Checker.
70-487 exam Answer:C
18.You design a Crystal summary report that is grouped by Region then by Customer Name. The Details
section is hidden. The report includes a bar chart that displays total orders by Customer Name for each
Region group. Which procedure will display the chart beside the sections that show Customer Name and
Total Sales?
A.Place the chart in the Group Header #1 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
B.Place the chart in the Details section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
C.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to Underlay Following Sections.
D.Place the chart in the Group Footer #2 section and format the section to suppress if duplicated.
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 70-463
Exam Name: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012
Updated: Aug 17, 2017
Q&As: 230

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Pass4itsure Free Microsoft 70-463 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers:

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the Cable Modem (Cable-TV) Working Group?
A. IEEE 802.9
B. IEEE 802.11
C. IEEE 802.14
D. IEEE 802.3
70-463 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
In buildings that will contain the telecommunications systems, NEC requirements address the adequate
electrical environment for reliable and error-free operation of the installed equipment.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3
Between the late 60’s and until 1984, what was the service that was to help architects and engineers better
design and implement pathways and spaces in commercial buildings for telephone communications?
A. BICS
B. AT&T
C. CREDFACS
D. GTE
E. BICSI
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Which of the following should be used as a guideline for estimating space requirements of optical fiber and
coaxial cable cross-connections in a TR?
A. 3 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
B. 2 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
C. 4 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
D. 1 sq. in. for each fiber pair to be patched or cross-connected.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the Standard for the Installation of Lightning Protection Systems?
A. NFPA-780
B. NFPA-70
C. NFPA-72
D. NFPA-75
70-463 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
________is the total opposition (resistance, capacitance, and inductance) a circuit, cable, or component
offers to the flow of alternating current.
A unit of measure expressed in ohms.

Correct Answer: Impedance
QUESTION 7
The ability of a device, equipment, or system to perform without degradation in the presence of an
electromagnetic disturbance is called what?
A. Electromagnetic immunity.
B. Electromagnetic compatibility.
C. Electromagnetic induction.
D. Electromagnetic disturbance.
70-463 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
A product is listed after it successfully completes a series of which of the following test?
A. Mechanical
B. Regulatory codes
C. Electrical
D. Thermal
Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 9
Distribution cable is that part of the loop that connects the customer location to the customer feeder cable.
A. True
B. False
70-463 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10
ANSI/TIA/EIA-758 is the standard for which of the following?
A. Customer-Owned Outside Plant Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
B. Technical Specifications for 100 Ohm Screened Twisted Pair Cabling.
C. Propagation Delay and Delay Skew Specifications for 100-Ohm 4-Pair Cable.
D. Residential Telecommunications Cabling Standard.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
The CEC is revised every four years.
A. True
B. False
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12
Which of the following is the standard for “Recommended Practice for Installation Design and Installation
of Valve Regulated Lead-Acid Storage Batteries for Stationary Applications”?
A. ANSI/IEEE C62.41
B. ANSI/IEEE C62.45
C. ANSI/IEEE P1188-1996
D. ANSI/IEEE P1187-1996

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
For design purposes, which of the following would be the typical size range of a 4-pair 100 ohm UTP or
ScTP (FTP) cable?
A. .50 in to .75 in
B. .14 in to .25 in
C. .31 in to .43 in
D. .11 in to .18 in
70-463 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 14
In what year was the TIA formed?
A. 1985
B. 1965
C. 1958
D. 1956
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
In an “underfloor duct system”, the distribution ducts carry cables from the TR to the feeder ducts.
A. False
B. True
70-463 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 16
What is the standard floor space allocation used in an office environment for one individual work area?
A. 100 square feet.
B. 50 square feet.
C. 150 square feet.
D. 75 square feet.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
NRZ is the acronym for which of the following?
A. Non-return to zero.
B. Nominal return zone.
C. Network registration zone.
D. Normal return zone.
70-463 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the international standard for premises cabling?
A. ISO/IEC 18010
B. ISO/IEC 11801

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 19
The inadvertent transposition of two conductors of separate pairs is called what?
A. Twisted pair
B. Transposed pairs
C. Reversed pair
D. Split pair
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20
A “wye” is a power system in which only one point is grounded.
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
Improper grounding of telecommunications pathways may increase susceptibility of EMI.
A. True
B. False
70-463 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 22
FOTP is an acronym for which of the following?
A. Fiber Optic Test Procedure.
B. Fiber Outside Termination Point.
C. Frequent Optical Transmission Problems.
D. Fiber Optic Transition Point.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
A “sag” is a decrease in normal root mean square (rms) voltage or current lasting 0.5 cycles up to one
minute.
A. False
B. True
70-463 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
Which of the following is an address used to uniquely identify each device on a LAN with an address
coded in the network interface card?
A. MAC
B. TCP
C. IP
D. Physical Layer
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
In what year was BICSI formally incorporated?
A. 1977
B. 1984
C. 1967
D. 1940
70-463 exam Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 26
In the ceiling zones method of ceiling distribution, divide the usable floor area into zones of how many
square feet?
A. 2000 to 2500 square feet.
B. 2500 to 3000 square feet.
C. 365 to 900 square feet.
D. 1000 to 2000 square feet.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 27
In a computer or control room where the plenum is used for heating, ventilating, and air-conditioning, the
finished floor height should be a minimum of how many inches?
A. 8 inches.
B. 12 inches.
C. 2 inches.
D. 6 inches.
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 28
Which of the following would be the medium duty concentrated load capacity of an access floor in an
equipment room?
A. 100 lbs/square ft.
B. 50 lbs/square ft.
C. 1000 lbs/square ft.
D. 2000 lbs/square ft.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 29
Freestanding and cornerlock access floors consist of panels that are supported solely by pedestals.
A. False
B. True
70-463 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 30
An offset in a conduit run should be considered the equivalent of a 90 degree bend.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 31
An is responsible for the detailed design of new systems and/or the integration of a design into an existing
system.
A. True
B. False
70-463 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 32
What is the typical slab thickness requirement for a two level underfloor duct system where feeder and
distribution ducts intersect?
A. 4 inch.
B. 5 inch.
C. 6 inch.
D. 7 inch.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 33
When designing an underfloor duct system, which of the following would be the cross-sectional area of the
duct serving each 100 square feet of floor space with 3 cables to each of the work areas.
A. 3 square inches.
B. 4 square inches.
C. 1 square inches.
D. 5 square inches.
70-463 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 34
A third bend is acceptable in a pull section shorter than 33 ft. in length?
A. False
B. True
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 35
In an underfloor duct system, pre-set inserts should be leveled to 1/8 inch below the finished pour.
A. False
B. True
70-463 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
An underfloor preset insert must be used in a post-tensioned pour.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

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